Review Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

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Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

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Total Questions : 26

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Question 1:

A client has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis (IM) caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the incidence of classic IM?

A. Classic IM is more common in older adults aged 50 and above. B. Classic IM has a seasonal variation, with peaks in summer. C. Classic IM has a low risk of malignancy associated with EBV infection. D. Classic IM has a higher incidence in developing countries than in developed countries.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Classic IM is not more common in older adults aged 50 and above. It primarily affects adolescents and young adults.

Choice B:

Classic IM does exhibit a seasonal variation, with higher incidence rates during the summer. This is believed to be related to increased social interactions and close contact during warm months.

Choice C:

Classic IM does not have a low risk of malignancy associated with EBV infection. EBV is linked to certain malignancies, such as Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

Choice D:

Classic IM does not have a higher incidence in developing countries. It is a widespread infection seen across various regions, including developed and developing countries.

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Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a client with infectious mononucleosis (IM) caused by cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. Which of the following complications should the nurse be vigilant for in this client?

A. Brain abscess formation. B. Enlarged spleen (splenomegaly) C. Burkitt's lymphoma development. D. Congenital abnormalities during pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Brain abscess formation is not a typical complication of IM caused by CMV infection. Encephalitis and meningitis are more relevant neurological concerns.

Choice B:

Enlarged spleen (splenomegaly) is a common complication of IM caused by CMV infection. It can lead to splenic rupture, which is a serious medical emergency.

Choice C:

Burkitt's lymphoma development is not a direct complication of IM caused by CMV infection. Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with EBV infection, not CMV.

Choice D:

Congenital abnormalities during pregnancy are not typically associated with IM caused by CMV infection. Congenital CMV infection can cause fetal abnormalities, but this is not directly related to IM.

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Question 3:

(Select all that apply - Based on an external source): A nurse is educating a group of young adults about the prevention of infectious mononucleosis (IM) Which measures should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.

A. Practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently. B. Avoiding sharing personal items, such as toothbrushes or utensils, with others. C. Receiving immunoglobulin injections if exposed to EBV within 72 hours. D. Using barrier methods during oral sex. E. Getting enough sleep to boost the immune system.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently, can help prevent the spread of the virus through contaminated surfaces and close contact.

Choice B:

Avoiding sharing personal items, such as toothbrushes or utensils, reduces the risk of direct contact with infected saliva, which can transmit the virus.

Choice C:

Receiving immunoglobulin injections within 72 hours of EBV exposure is not a standard preventive measure for IM. There is no established prophylactic treatment for EBV.

Choice D:

Using barrier methods during oral sex may help prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted infections, but it is not a specific preventive measure for IM.

Choice E:

Getting enough sleep to boost the immune system is a reasonable preventive measure, as a strong immune system can better defend against viral infections like IM.

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Question 4:

A nurse is educating a group of adolescents about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) Which of the following statements regarding STIs is accurate? Select the correct option.

A. STIs are only caused by bacteria. B. STIs can only be transmitted through sexual intercourse. C. STIs have no serious consequences for health. D. STIs can affect anyone who is sexually active.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

STIs are not exclusively caused by bacteria. They can also be caused by viruses (e.g., HIV, herpes), parasites (e.g., trichomoniasis), and other pathogens.

Choice B:

STIs can be transmitted through various means, including sexual intercourse, but also through other forms of sexual contact (oral, anal), sharing of contaminated needles, and from mother to baby during childbirth or breastfeeding.

Choice C:

This statement is inaccurate. Many STIs can have serious consequences for health, including infertility, chronic pain, cancer (e.g., HPV-related cervical cancer), and increased risk of other infections (e.g., HIV transmission is facilitated by some STIs)

Choice D:

This is the correct choice. STIs can indeed affect anyone who engages in sexual activity, regardless of age or gender. Being sexually active without proper protection and precautions increases the risk of STI transmission.

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Question 5:

A nurse is assessing a client who reports recurrent episodes of painful vesicles or ulcers on the genitals, anus, or mouth. The client also mentions tingling, burning, or itching before the outbreak. Which of the following STIs is the client likely experiencing? Select all that apply.

A. Chlamydia. B. Gonorrhea. C. Syphilis. D. Genital herpes. E. Genital warts.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia does not typically present with painful vesicles or ulcers; it usually causes genital discharge and discomfort during urination.

Choice B:

Gonorrhea does not commonly cause painful vesicles or ulcers; it primarily leads to genital discharge and discomfort during urination.

Choice C:

Syphilis can cause ulcers (chancre) but is not typically associated with recurrent vesicles, tingling, or itching. It goes through different stages.

Choice D:

This is the correct choice. Genital herpes commonly presents with painful vesicles or ulcers on the genitals, anus, or mouth, along with tingling, burning, or itching before the outbreak.

Choice E:

This is the correct choice. Genital warts, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), can lead to the development of warts on the genitalia and surrounding areas.

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Question 6:

A client diagnosed with Chlamydia expresses concerns about the possible consequences of the infection. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? Select the nurse's correct response.

A. "Chlamydia can lead to infertility and chronic pain if left untreated.” B. "Chlamydia only affects older adults, so you don't have to worry about it.” C. "Chlamydia is not a serious infection and usually goes away on its own.” D. "Chlamydia is caused by a virus, so antibiotics won't be effective.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice B:

Chlamydia does not exclusively affect older adults; it can impact individuals of any age who are sexually active.

Choice C:

This statement is incorrect. Chlamydia is a serious infection that requires treatment with antibiotics. If left untreated, it can lead to serious complications, such as pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can result in infertility and chronic pain.

Choice D:

Chlamydia is caused by a bacterium, not a virus. Antibiotics are the primary treatment and are effective against bacterial infections like chlamydia.

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Question 7:

A nurse is educating a group of sexually active individuals about preventing STIs. Which of the following statements by a participant indicates a need for further education? Select the participant's incorrect statement.

A. "Using condoms consistently and correctly can reduce the risk of STI transmission.” B. "Getting regular STI testing is unnecessary as long as I feel fine.” C. "Avoiding sexual contact with multiple partners can lower the risk of STIs.” D. "Practicing abstinence is the most effective way to prevent STIs.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Using condoms consistently and correctly is a valid statement. Condoms provide a barrier that can significantly reduce the risk of STI transmission by preventing direct genital contact.

Choice B:

Getting regular STI testing is crucial for early detection and treatment, even if no symptoms are present. Many STIs can remain asymptomatic, and delaying testing could lead to complications and further spread.

Choice C:

Avoiding sexual contact with multiple partners can indeed lower the risk of STIs, as it reduces exposure to potential carriers. However, this choice does not require further education.

Choice D:

Practicing abstinence is an effective method to prevent STIs, but it may not be feasible for everyone. It is not the "most effective" method, as condoms and regular testing are also vital strategies.

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Question 8:

A nurse is explaining the transmission cycle of STIs to a client. Which of the following examples correctly describes the transmission cycle of a specific STI? Select the correct option.

A. Chlamydia is transmitted through direct contact with infectious lesions. B. Gonorrhea can be transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy. C. Syphilis is transmitted through contaminated objects such as towels. D. Trichomoniasis is transmitted through sharing needles or injection equipment.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia is indeed transmitted through direct contact with infectious lesions, such as those on genital, anal, or oral areas. This contact can occur during sexual activity.

Choice B:

Gonorrhea can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth, not during pregnancy. This is known as vertical transmission.

Choice C:

Syphilis is primarily transmitted through direct contact with syphilis sores (chancre), not through contaminated objects like towels.

Choice D:

Trichomoniasis is typically transmitted through sexual contact, particularly vaginal intercourse. Sharing needles or injection equipment is not a common mode of transmission for this STI.

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Question 9:

Which of the following STIs is caused by a protozoa?

A. Chlamydia. B. Gonorrhea. C. Syphilis. D. Trichomoniasis.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, not a protozoa.

Choice B:

Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, not a protozoa.

Choice C:

Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, not a protozoa.

Choice D:

Trichomoniasis is indeed caused by a protozoa called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is a common STI that affects the urogenital tract and is transmitted through sexual contact.

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Question 10:

A client diagnosed with genital warts asks the nurse about the potential symptoms of the infection. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of genital warts?

A. Painful ulcers on the genitals. B. Yellow-green vaginal discharge. C. Recurrent episodes of vesicles. D. Painful growths on the genitals.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Painful ulcers on the genitals are not characteristic of genital warts. Genital warts typically present as soft growths or small, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like bumps.

Choice B:

Yellow-green vaginal discharge is not a symptom of genital warts. This type of discharge may indicate other infections such as trichomoniasis or bacterial vaginosis.

Choice C:

Recurrent episodes of vesicles are characteristic of genital warts caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) These vesicles are often painful and may break open to form ulcers before healing.

Choice D:

Painful growths on the genitals are not a common symptom of genital warts. While genital warts can cause discomfort, they are usually not described as painful growths.

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Question 11:

A nurse is discussing the vector of STIs with a group of clients. Which of the following STIs is transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk? Select all that apply.

A. Chlamydia. B. Gonorrhea. C. Syphilis. D. Hepatitis B. E. HIV/AIDS.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and does not involve direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk.

Choice B:

Gonorrhea is also transmitted through sexual contact and does not involve direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk.

Choice C:

Syphilis is transmitted through direct contact with syphilis sores (chancres) during sexual activity, but it is not primarily transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk.

Choice D:

Hepatitis B is transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk. It can also be spread through contaminated needles or other sharp objects.

Choice E:

HIV/AIDS is transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk. It is primarily spread through sexual contact, sharing needles, or from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.

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Question 12:

A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected genital herpes. Which diagnostic method should the nurse anticipate for confirmation?

A. Blood culture. B. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine. C. Wet mount microscopy using vaginal discharge. D. Serologic test using blood sample.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Blood culture is not the preferred diagnostic method for confirming genital herpes. Herpes simplex virus is best detected through methods that target viral DNA or RNA, such as NAAT.

Choice B:

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine is an appropriate diagnostic method for confirming genital herpes. This test detects the genetic material of the herpes virus and is commonly used for accurate diagnosis.

Choice C:

Wet mount microscopy using vaginal discharge is used to diagnose conditions such as bacterial vaginosis and yeast infections, but it is not the primary method for diagnosing genital herpes.

Choice D:

Serologic testing using a blood sample can detect antibodies to herpes, indicating past exposure or infection. However, it may not be as accurate for confirming an active genital herpes outbreak as NAAT.

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Question 13:

A nurse is educating a group of patients about preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of primary prevention measures?

A. "I will get vaccinated against hepatitis B and human papillomavirus.” B. "I will get tested regularly for STIs even if I don't have any symptoms.” C. "I will take antiviral drugs to manage genital herpes outbreaks.” D. "I will notify all my previous sexual partners if I test positive for an STI.” E. "I will use condoms consistently and correctly during sexual activity.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Vaccination against hepatitis B and human papillomavirus (HPV) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at reducing the risk of infection. While important, it does not directly address the primary prevention of STIs.

Choice B:

Regular STI testing, even without symptoms, is a primary prevention measure as it helps detect and treat infections early, reducing their spread.

Choice C:

Taking antiviral drugs for managing genital herpes outbreaks is a tertiary prevention measure, focusing on symptom control rather than preventing the transmission of the infection.

Choice D:

Notifying previous sexual partners is a responsible behavior but is more related to secondary prevention by identifying and treating potential contacts.

Choice E:

Consistent and correct condom use during sexual activity is a primary prevention measure that significantly reduces the risk of STI transmission.

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Question 14:

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?

A. "I should inform all my sexual partners about my diagnosis and encourage them to get tested.” B. "I may need resistance testing to determine the most appropriate antibiotics for my treatment.” C. "I will take antibiotics as prescribed and complete the full course of treatment.” D. "I can stop using condoms once my symptoms resolve.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Informing sexual partners and encouraging them to get tested is a responsible action for preventing the spread of gonorrhea and is appropriate.

Choice B:

Resistance testing to determine appropriate antibiotics is crucial in the management of antibiotic-resistant infections, demonstrating the patient's understanding.

Choice C:

Taking antibiotics as prescribed and completing the full course is important to ensure complete eradication of the infection and reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

Choice D:

This statement indicates a misunderstanding. Even after symptoms resolve, condom use should continue to prevent reinfection or transmission to partners.

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Question 15:

A nurse is providing care to a patient diagnosed with syphilis. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment plan?

A. "I will need to take penicillin G for my infection.” B. "I should avoid treatment if I am allergic to penicillin.” C. "I don't need to inform my sexual partners about my diagnosis.” D. "I will have regular follow-up testing to monitor my progress.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Penicillin G is the primary and most effective treatment for syphilis, demonstrating the patient's understanding of the recommended treatment.

Choice B:

Avoiding treatment if allergic to penicillin is not advisable. Alternative treatments are available for patients with penicillin allergies.

Choice C:

Informing sexual partners about the diagnosis is crucial to prevent transmission and is an essential part of the treatment plan.

Choice D:

Regular follow-up testing is necessary to monitor treatment efficacy and ensure complete resolution of the infection.

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Question 16:

A nurse is counseling a patient with trichomoniasis. Which advice should the nurse provide to prevent reinfection?

A. "Notify and treat all your sexual partners.” B. "Use topical agents such as podophyllin to manage symptoms.” C. "Practice abstinence until cured to avoid spreading the infection.” D. "Avoid sharing personal items like razors to prevent transmission.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The nurse should advise the patient to notify and treat all sexual partners to prevent reinfection and further spread of the sexually transmitted infection (STI) Treating only the infected individual may not fully eliminate the infection, as untreated partners can reinfect each other.

Choice B:

Using topical agents like podophyllin is not relevant to trichomoniasis, as it is an STI caused by a protozoan parasite. Topical agents are typically used for treating genital warts caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)

Choice C:

Practicing abstinence until cured is a reasonable precaution to prevent spreading the infection, but it does not address the aspect of notifying and treating sexual partners, which is crucial for preventing reinfection.

Choice D:

Avoiding sharing personal items like razors is a general hygiene practice but is not specific to preventing trichomoniasis reinfection. It does not address the need for partner notification and treatment.

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Question 17:

A nurse is caring for a patient with suspected gonorrhea. Which diagnostic method should the nurse anticipate using to confirm the infection?

A. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine samples. B. Serologic test using blood sample. C. Wet mount microscopy using vaginal discharge. D. Visual inspection of genital warts.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

NAAT is a highly sensitive and specific diagnostic method used to detect the genetic material of the causative organism. It is suitable for diagnosing gonorrhea and can be performed using urine samples, making it non-invasive and convenient.

Choice B:

Serologic tests are used to detect antibodies produced by the body in response to infections. It is not the primary diagnostic method for confirming acute gonorrhea, as antibodies may take time to develop.

Choice C:

Wet mount microscopy is more commonly used to diagnose Trichomonas vaginalis, not gonorrhea. It involves examining vaginal discharge under a microscope to identify the parasite.

Choice D:

Visual inspection of genital warts is not relevant to diagnosing gonorrhea. It is used for diagnosing and assessing the severity of warts caused by HPV.

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Question 18:

A client has been diagnosed with syphilis. Which treatment option should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient?

A. Antibiotics such as azithromycin. B. Antiviral drugs like acyclovir. C. Antiprotozoal drugs such as metronidazole. D. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) consisting of a combination of drugs.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Antibiotics, specifically those like azithromycin or doxycycline, are the standard treatment for syphilis, which is a bacterial infection caused by Treponema pallidum. These antibiotics effectively target and eliminate the bacteria responsible for the infection.

Choice B:

Antiviral drugs like acyclovir are used to treat viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus (HSV), and are not effective against bacterial infections like syphilis.

Choice C:

Antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole are used to treat infections caused by protozoa, not bacteria like Treponema pallidum.

Choice D:

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to manage HIV/AIDS, which is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), not syphilis. It is not an appropriate treatment for syphilis infection.

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Question 19:

A nurse is providing education to a patient diagnosed with chlamydia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I should inform all my sexual partners about my diagnosis and encourage them to get tested.” B. "I will take antibiotics as prescribed and complete the full course of treatment.” C. "I may need resistance testing to determine the most appropriate antibiotics for my treatment.” D. "I can stop using condoms once my symptoms resolve.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This choice is correct because the patient demonstrates understanding of the importance of notifying sexual partners and encouraging them to get tested. This approach helps prevent the spread of chlamydia.

Choice B:

This choice is correct as well. Taking antibiotics as prescribed and completing the full course of treatment is essential to ensure complete eradication of the infection and prevent antibiotic resistance.

Choice C:

This choice is also correct. Resistance testing may be necessary in cases of antibiotic-resistant strains of chlamydia to determine the most effective treatment.

Choice D:

This choice is incorrect. The patient should continue using condoms even after symptom resolution to prevent reinfection and the transmission of STIs.

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Question 20:

A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with genital herpes. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the treatment plan?

A. "I will take antiviral drugs like acyclovir during my outbreaks.” B. "I should avoid treatment if I am allergic to penicillin.” C. "I don't need to inform my sexual partners about my diagnosis.” D. "I will have regular follow-up testing to monitor my progress.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This choice is correct because antiviral drugs like acyclovir are commonly prescribed during herpes outbreaks to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.

Choice B:

This choice is incorrect. Avoiding treatment due to a penicillin allergy is not relevant to genital herpes, as antiviral drugs are used for herpes treatment, not penicillin-based antibiotics.

Choice C:

This choice is incorrect. Informing sexual partners about a genital herpes diagnosis is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection.

Choice D:

This choice is incorrect. Regular follow-up testing is not typically required for monitoring herpes progress, as the diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on symptoms.

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Question 21:

A nurse is providing nursing interventions for a patient with STI. Which action is a part of tertiary prevention for this patient?

A. Routine screening and testing for STIs. B. Providing wound care and comfort measures. C. Vaccination against hepatitis B and human papillomavirus. D. Management of chronic conditions associated with STIs.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This choice is incorrect. Routine screening and testing for STIs fall under primary prevention, aiming to prevent the initial occurrence of infections.

Choice B:

This choice is incorrect. Providing wound care and comfort measures is a component of secondary prevention, focusing on early detection and treatment of existing infections.

Choice C:

This choice is incorrect. Vaccination against hepatitis B and human papillomavirus is a form of primary prevention, reducing the risk of acquiring these specific infections.

Choice D:

This choice is correct. Tertiary prevention involves managing chronic conditions that result from STIs, such as HIV/AIDS, to improve quality of life and prevent complications.

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Question 22:

A nurse is educating a group of teenagers about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) Which of the following statements accurately describes protozoal STIs?

A. Caused by viruses that infect the cells of the body; cannot be cured but can be managed with antiviral drugs. B. Caused by protozoa that infect the genital tract; can be cured with antiprotozoal drugs; may cause vaginitis, cervicitis, urethritis, or prostatitis if untreated. C. Caused by bacteria that invade the mucous membranes or skin; can be cured with antibiotics; may cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or congenital syphilis if untreated. D. Mites or insects that infest the skin or hair of the genitals; can be cured with topical agents or oral drugs; may cause itching, rash, or secondary infection if untreated.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This choice describes viral STIs, which are caused by viruses infecting body cells. While antiviral drugs can manage these infections, they cannot be completely cured. Examples of viral STIs include HIV and genital warts.

Choice B:

Protozoal STIs are indeed caused by protozoa infecting the genital tract. They can be effectively treated with antiprotozoal drugs, and if left untreated, they may lead to various symptoms such as vaginitis, cervicitis, urethritis, or prostatitis. Trichomoniasis is an example of a protozoal STI.

Choice C:

This option refers to bacterial STIs, not protozoal ones. Bacterial STIs can be cured with antibiotics and may cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or congenital syphilis if left untreated. Examples include chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis.

Choice D:

This describes parasitic STIs caused by mites or insects infesting the genital skin or hair. These infections can be treated with topical agents or oral drugs. Examples include pubic lice (crabs) and scabies.

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Question 23:

A nurse is conducting a sexual health education session for a group of adults. Which of the following STIs are caused by viruses? Select all that apply:

A. Chlamydia. B. Syphilis. C. Genital herpes. D. HIV/AIDS. E. Trichomoniasis.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis and is one of the most common sexually transmitted infections. It can cause infection in the genitals, rectum, and throat and is treated with antibiotics.

Choice B:

Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It is transmitted through direct contact with a syphilis sore, typically during sexual activity. Syphilis can be treated with antibiotics, particularly in the early stages.

Choice C:

Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), typically HSV-2. This viral infection can cause painful blisters or ulcers in the genital area and is transmitted through sexual contact or skin-to-skin contact with an infected individual.

Choice D:

HIV/AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and weakens the body's ability to fight infections. It is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, sharing needles or syringes, or mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.

Choice E:

Trichomoniasis is caused by the protozoan parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. This STI can cause vaginal or urethral infections and is treated with prescription medications, usually metronidazole or tinidazole.

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Question 24:

A client with a sexually transmitted infection (STI) is hesitant to seek treatment due to fear of being stigmatized. Which statement by the nurse would best address the client's concern?

A. "It's essential to get treated to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.” B. "Don't worry; STIs are common, and many people seek treatment without facing any stigma.” C. "You should notify your sexual partners about the infection to protect their health as well.” D. "If you're concerned about privacy, we can ensure confidentiality throughout the treatment process.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While preventing complications and spread is important, this response doesn't directly address the client's fear of stigmatization.

Choice B:

This response downplays the client's concerns and may not provide adequate reassurance.

Choice C:

While notifying sexual partners is essential, this response doesn't address the client's specific fear of stigma.

Choice D:

This choice directly addresses the client's concern about privacy and stigma. Ensuring confidentiality can help the client feel more comfortable seeking treatment.

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Question 25:

A nurse is caring for a client with a bacterial STI. The client is worried about the possible complications of the infection. Which statement by the nurse would provide accurate information and reassurance?

A. "Complications of bacterial STIs usually include chronic inflammation and liver damage.” B. "If left untreated, bacterial STIs can lead to recurrent outbreaks and chronic pain.” C. "Bacterial STIs may cause complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, or ectopic pregnancy.” D. "The most common complication of bacterial STIs is itching and rash in the genital area.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chronic inflammation and liver damage are not typical complications of bacterial STIs. Bacterial STIs primarily affect the reproductive and urinary systems, leading to complications like PID, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy.

Choice B:

Recurrent outbreaks and chronic pain are more characteristic of viral STIs, such as herpes, rather than bacterial ones. Bacterial STIs can lead to more serious complications like PID and infertility.

Choice C:

This is the correct answer. Bacterial STIs, if left untreated, can indeed lead to complications like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can cause infertility and ectopic pregnancy. Providing this information helps address the client's concerns accurately.

Choice D:

Itching and rash are possible symptoms of some bacterial STIs, but they are not the most common complications. Complications are more related to reproductive health.

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Question 26:

A client is concerned about the prevalence of STIs in different regions. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) data, which region had the highest burden of four curable STIs (chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, trichomoniasis) in 2016?

A. African region. B. Americas region. C. European region. D. Western Pacific region.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is the correct answer based on WHO data from 2016. The African region had the highest burden of curable STIs (chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, trichomoniasis) at that time due to various factors including limited access to healthcare and education.

Choice B:

While STI prevalence in the Americas region is significant, it was not the highest burden according to the WHO data from 2016.

Choice C:

The European region had lower STI burden compared to the African region in 2016.

Choice D:

The Western Pacific region had a notable STI burden, but it was not the highest according to the WHO data. Gastroenteritis. .

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