Review ATI PN Exit 2023

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ATI PN Exit 2023

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Question 1:

The practical nurse (PN) is providing instructions to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) preparing to give a total bed bath to an immobile client who has a continuous feeding via gastrostomy tube (GT).

Which instruction is most important for the PN to emphasize?

A. Raise the entire bed while bathing the client to reduce back strain B. Report any drainage observed around the GT insertion site C. Keep the head of the bed raised while the tube feeding is infusing D. Use plenty of pillows to position the client on the side after bathing.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

-Raising the entire bed while bathing the client is a good practice as it helps to reduce back strain for the caregiver. However, this is not directly related to the care of a client with a gastrostomy tube (GT).

Choice B:

Reporting any drainage observed around the GT insertion site is important as it could indicate an infection or other complication. However, this is not the most critical action when caring for a client with a GT.

Choice C:

Keeping the head of the bed raised while the tube feeding is infusing is the correct answer. This is crucial in preventing aspiration, a serious complication where the contents of the stomach enter the lungs. Aspiration can lead to pneumonia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Therefore, the head of the bed should be kept at a 30-45 degree angle during feeding and for at least 30 minutes after feeding.

Choice D:

-Using plenty of pillows to position the client on the side after bathing can contribute to the client’s comfort. However, this is not the most critical action when caring for a client with a GT.

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Question 2:

Prior to administering pain medication to an adult postoperative client, what information should the practical nurse (PN) obtain? (Select all that apply.)

A. Height and weight of client prior to admission B. Client's pain rating on a scale of 1 to 10 C. Time of last administration of pain medication D. Eﬀectiveness of last pain medication administered E. History of pain medication use during the past year

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Height and weight of client prior to admission are not relevant for administering pain medication and may not aﬀect the dosage or route of the medication.

Choice B:

These are the information that the PN should obtain prior to administering pain medication to an adult postoperative client because they help to assess the client's current pain level, response to previous medication, and need for further intervention. The PN should also document these information in the medical record and report any changes or concerns.

Choice C:

Choice D:

Choice E:

History of pain medication use during the past year is not relevant for administering pain medication and may not indicate the client's tolerance or preference for the medication

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Question 3:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of an infant who has a Pavlik harness.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "You should place the diaper over the strap of the harness.” B. "The harness can be removed for sleeping each night.” C. "You can apply lotion under the straps of the harness.” D. "The harness can promote hip joint development.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The nurse should not recommend placing the diaper over the strap of the Pavlik harness. Placing the diaper over the strap can cause discomfort and may interfere with the proper function of the harness, which is designed to maintain hip joint alignment in infants with developmental hip dysplasia.

Choice B:

The Pavlik harness is typically worn continuously, including during sleep. It should not be removed for sleeping each night because consistent use is essential for its effectiveness in promoting hip joint development.

Choice C:

Applying lotion under the straps of the harness is not recommended. Lotions or creams can create friction and moisture, which may lead to skin irritation or discomfort for the infant. It's best to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the care and maintenance of the harness.

Choice D:

The correct choice is D. The nurse should include the statement that "The harness can promote hip joint development" in the teaching. This is because the Pavlik harness is used to treat developmental hip dysplasia by maintaining the hip joint in a stable position, allowing for proper development. It is important for parents to understand the purpose and benefits of the harness in order to ensure compliance and effectiveness of the treatment.

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Question 4:

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for three clients.
Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect for a client who has cirrhosis?

A. Elevated amylase. B. Decreased bilirubin. C. Elevated lipase. D. Elevated ammonia.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Elevated amylase is not typically associated with cirrhosis. Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas and salivary glands, and elevated levels are more commonly associated with pancreatic disorders or acute pancreatitis.

Choice B:

Decreased bilirubin is not an expected laboratory finding in cirrhosis. Cirrhosis often leads to impaired liver function, which can result in elevated bilirubin levels, causing jaundice.

Choice C:

Elevated lipase is not a characteristic laboratory finding in cirrhosis. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas, and elevated levels are more often seen in pancreatic disorders or acute pancreatitis.

Choice D:

The correct choice is D. Elevated ammonia levels are commonly associated with cirrhosis. In cirrhosis, the damaged liver is unable to effectively metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological complication often seen in cirrhotic patients.

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Question 5:

A nurse is assisting with discharge planning for a client who is prescribed home oxygen at 1 to 2 L/min.
The nurse should ensure that the client has which of the following supplies upon discharge?

A. Oxygen mask. B. Reservoir bag. C. Petroleum jelly. D. Nasal cannula.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client does not need an oxygen mask for a low flow rate of 1 to 2 L/min. Oxygen masks are typically used for higher flow rates and may not be comfortable or necessary for a client requiring such a low oxygen flow.

Choice B:

A reservoir bag is not required for a client receiving low flow oxygen at 1 to 2 L/min. Reservoir bags are commonly used with oxygen masks at higher flow rates to ensure a consistent supply of oxygen during inhalation.

Choice C:

Petroleum jelly is not a necessary supply for a client prescribed home oxygen at 1 to 2 L/min. Its use may not be recommended due to the risk of flammability in the presence of oxygen.

Choice D:

The correct choice is D. The client should have a nasal cannula as a supply upon discharge. A nasal cannula is the appropriate delivery device for low flow oxygen therapy at 1 to 2 L/min. It is comfortable and allows for adequate oxygen supplementation for the client.

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Question 6:

A nurse is preparing a client's body for a postmortem family viewing.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Remove the client's dentures to close their mouth. B. Place medical equipment to the side of the client's bed. C. Lie on the head of the client's bed flat. D. Ask the family if they want to participate in postmortem care.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This option is incorrect because removing the client's dentures may not be necessary and can alter the client's appearance, causing unnecessary distress to the family during the viewing. Dentures should generally be left in place to maintain the natural shape of the client's face and preserve their appearance as closely as possible. However, if the family expresses a preference for removing the dentures or if it is medically necessary, the nurse should discuss this option with them and follow facility protocols accordingly.

Choice B:

While it is essential to create a serene and comfortable environment for the family during the viewing, simply placing medical equipment to the side of the client's bed may not be sufficient. Medical equipment should be removed from the room entirely to minimize distractions and create a more peaceful atmosphere for the family. This ensures that the focus remains on the client and their loved ones during this sensitive time.

Choice C:

This option is incorrect because lying the head of the client's bed flat is not appropriate for postmortem care. Elevating the head of the bed is essential to prevent blood pooling and discoloration of the client's face and neck, which can occur when the body is in a supine position for an extended period. Maintaining proper positioning also helps preserve the dignity and appearance of the deceased individual during the family viewing. Therefore, the nurse should ensure that the bed is appropriately positioned based on facility protocols and the client's condition.

Choice D:

While it is important to involve the family in postmortem care decisions, asking the family if they want to participate should be done before the actual preparation of the body begins. It is a crucial part of providing holistic and patient-centered care, but it is not a specific action related to preparing the body for viewing.

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Question 7:

A nurse is participating in an interprofessional team meeting for a client.
Which of the following information about the client should the nurse include?

A. The client has developed difficulty ambulating. B. The client's next dressing change is scheduled in 4 hr. C. The client has state-sponsored health insurance. D. The client's vital signs are checked every 8 hr.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

In an interprofessional team meeting for a client, it is essential to include information about changes in the client's condition or any new developments that may impact their care. The statement that "The client has developed difficulty ambulating" is relevant as it indicates a change in the client's mobility status and may require additional interventions or assessments.

Choice B:

The timing of the client's next dressing change (scheduled in 4 hr) is important information but may not be the highest priority to discuss in an interprofessional team meeting. It is more pertinent to focus on the client's current condition and any changes that have occurred.

Choice C:

The client's health insurance status (state-sponsored health insurance) is not typically a central topic of discussion in an interprofessional team meeting unless it directly affects the client's care plan or access to specific treatments.

Choice D:

The frequency of the client's vital sign checks (every 8 hr) is important information for the healthcare team to be aware of, but it may not be the most critical piece of information to include in the interprofessional team meeting. Changes in vital signs or trends would be more relevant to discuss.

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Question 8:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is about to undergo an amniocentesis.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?

A. "I will need to give you Rh(D) immune globulin because you are Rh positive.” B. "You will need to have an empty bladder for the test.” C. "You will have to lie on your left side during the test.” D. "You will have to drink 50 grams of oral glucose before the test.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is typically indicated for Rh-negative mothers who are carrying Rh-positive fetuses to prevent sensitization to Rh antigens. It is not directly related to the amniocentesis procedure. Therefore, this information is not necessary for the client undergoing an amniocentesis.

Choice B:

This is the correct answer. Having an empty bladder is crucial during an amniocentesis procedure because a full bladder can obscure visualization of the fetus and the needle placement. It is essential for a successful and safe procedure. The nurse should instruct the client to empty their bladder before the test.

Choice C:

The position during an amniocentesis is typically dorsal recumbent or semi-Fowler's position to allow for proper visualization of the fetus and needle placement. Lying on the left side is not a standard position for this procedure, so this information is incorrect and not necessary for the client.

Choice D:

Drinking 50 grams of oral glucose is not a requirement for an amniocentesis procedure. This information is unrelated to the amniocentesis and can be confusing for the client. Therefore, it is not necessary to include this in the instructions.

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Question 9:

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a group of clients.
The nurse should identify that informed consent is required for which of the following procedures?

A. Placement of a central venous catheter. B. Insertion of a nasogastric tube. C. Irrigation of a wound with antibiotic solution. D. Administration of an iron injection using Z-track technique.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Informed consent is required for invasive procedures that carry significant risks or potential complications. Placement of a central venous catheter is an invasive procedure that involves inserting a catheter into a large vein, often in the neck, chest, or groin. It carries potential risks such as infection, bleeding, and injury to nearby structures. Therefore, informed consent is necessary before performing this procedure.

Choice B:

Insertion of a nasogastric tube is an invasive procedure, but it is generally considered a routine and less risky procedure compared to others. Informed consent is typically not required for nasogastric tube insertion unless there are specific institutional policies or the client lacks decision-making capacity.

Choice C:

Irrigation of a wound with antibiotic solution is a standard nursing procedure, and informed consent is not typically required for wound care unless there are specific circumstances that make it necessary, such as unusual risks or patient-specific considerations.

Choice D:

Administration of an iron injection using Z-track technique is also an invasive procedure, but it is a common and well-established technique for administering intramuscular injections. Informed consent is not routinely required for this procedure unless there are specific institutional policies or the client's condition warrants it.

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Question 10:

A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching about skin care with a client who has a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. "I will cleanse my skin using an antibacterial soap.” B. "I will dry my skin by patting it with a towel.” C. "I will use an astringent on my face.” D. "I will limit my time in the tanning bed to 15 minutes.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Cleansing the skin with an antibacterial soap is not typically recommended for clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) unless there is a specific medical indication for antibacterial soap. Using mild, non-irritating, hypoallergenic soap is usually preferred to avoid skin irritation in individuals with SLE.

Choice B:

This is the correct answer. Patting the skin dry with a towel instead of rubbing it helps to prevent excessive friction and irritation, which can be particularly important for individuals with SLE who may have sensitive skin. The client demonstrates an understanding of appropriate skin care by choosing this option.

Choice C:

Using an astringent on the face is generally discouraged for individuals with SLE. Astringents can be harsh and may irritate the skin, which can exacerbate skin problems commonly associated with SLE. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of appropriate skin care.

Choice D:

Limiting time in the tanning bed is advisable for anyone, as excessive exposure to UV radiation can increase the risk of skin damage and skin cancers. However, individuals with SLE are especially sensitive to UV radiation, and they should avoid tanning beds altogether. This statement indicates a lack of understanding of the specific needs of individuals with SLE regarding sun exposure.

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Question 11:

A nurse is providing care to a client who is immunocompromised.

Which of the following should the nurse identify as a possible source of infection?

A. Soiled linens are placed on the floor B. Waste containers are lined with single bags C. Dampened cloths are used for dusting the area D. Uncapped sharps are put in a puncture-resistant container

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Placing soiled linens on the floor can lead to cross-contamination and the spread of infectious agents. This can pose a risk to the immunocompromised client, who may be more susceptible to infections.

Choice B:

Lining waste containers with single bags helps contain potentially infectious waste and facilitates proper disposal. This reduces the risk of contamination and exposure to infectious materials.

Choice C:

Using dampened cloths for dusting helps minimize the spread of dust and airborne particles. Dampening the cloth can help capture the dust and prevent it from becoming airborne, reducing the potential for respiratory exposure.

Choice D:

Placing uncapped sharps in a puncture-resistant container is an essential practice to prevent needlestick injuries and the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. This ensures safe disposal of sharps and reduces the risk of accidental needlestick injuries to healthcare workers and clients.

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Question 12:

A nurse is caring for a client who has depressive disorder.
The client states, "Everyone would be better off if I were not around." Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. "What would your family do without you?” B. "When you get better you will not feel this way.” C. "Why would you think a thing like that?” D. "Are you thinking of hurting yourself?”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Asking, "What would your family do without you?" can be seen as judgmental and may not encourage open communication. It doesn't directly address the client's statement about feeling like a burden or wanting to be gone.

Choice B:

Saying, "When you get better you will not feel this way," minimizes the client's feelings and can be invalidating. It does not show empathy or concern for the client's current emotional state.

Choice C:

Asking, "Why would you think a thing like that?" can come across as judgmental and may make the client defensive. It does not directly address the client's emotional distress or suicidal ideation.

Choice D:

This is the correct answer. "Are you thinking of hurting yourself?" is a direct and appropriate question to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. It demonstrates concern for the client's well-being and opens the door for a more in-depth conversation about their feelings and thoughts. Assessing for suicidal ideation is a crucial step in providing appropriate care for a client with depressive disorder.

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Question 13:

A nurse in an acute care setting is preparing to administer medications to a client.
Which of the following information should the nurse obtain to identify the client?

A. The client’s date of birth B. Client's full medical diagnosis. C. Client's telephone number. D. Room number of the client.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client’s date of birth is a critical identifier in healthcare settings. It is unique to the individual and does not change, making it a reliable way to confirm a patient’s identity. This is especially important in acute care settings where accurate patient identification is crucial for safe medication administration. Using the date of birth along with another identifier, such as the patient’s name, aligns with the best practices for patient safety.

Choice B:

While a client’s full medical diagnosis is important information for a nurse to know, it is not used as an identifier for medication administration. The diagnosis helps inform treatment decisions and care planning but does not uniquely identify a patient. Multiple patients could have the same diagnosis, which could lead to medication errors if used as an identifier.

Choice C:

A client’s telephone number is not a standard identifier used in healthcare settings for medication administration. Telephone numbers can change and are not unique to an individual. They also do not provide immediate verification of a patient’s identity at the bedside.

Choice D:

The room number of the client is not a primary identifier for patient identification in medication administration. Room numbers are not unique to individuals and can change if a patient is moved. It is possible for errors to occur if room numbers are used as the sole identifier, as another patient could be in that room at a different time.

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Question 14:

A nurse is caring for a client who is cyanotic and has a respiratory rate of 8/min with shallow respirations.
Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

A. Place a pulse oximeter on the client's finger. B. Establish a patent airway for the client. C. Check the client's pulse rate. D. Administer oxygen to the client.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Placing a pulse oximeter on the client's finger to assess oxygen saturation is important, but in this scenario, establishing a patent airway takes priority. The client's cyanosis and shallow respirations indicate a severe respiratory distress, and the nurse should first ensure the client's ability to breathe before assessing oxygen levels.

Choice B:

Establishing a patent airway is the priority action because the client's shallow respirations and cyanosis indicate a compromised airway and inadequate oxygenation. Ensuring a clear airway is crucial for the client's survival.

Choice C:

Checking the client's pulse rate is an important assessment but should not take precedence over addressing the airway and breathing issues. The client's respiratory distress is a more immediate concern.

Choice D:

Administering oxygen is an appropriate intervention, but it should not be done before ensuring a patent airway. The nurse must prioritize actions to address the most critical issue first.

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Question 15:

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 2 days postpartum.
The client tells the nurse she cannot afford to pay for baby formula.
The nurse should refer the client to which of the following members of the interprofessional team?

A. Nutritionist. B. Primary care provider. C. Pediatric nurse practitioner. D. Case manager.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Referring the client to a nutritionist is not the most appropriate action in this situation. While nutritionists can provide valuable information on infant feeding, the client's primary concern is the inability to afford baby formula. A case manager is better suited to address the client's financial and social needs.

Choice B:

Referring the client to the primary care provider is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The primary care provider may not have the resources or expertise to address the client's financial and social concerns.

Choice C:

Referring the client to a pediatric nurse practitioner is not the most appropriate action in this situation. While pediatric nurse practitioners can provide healthcare for infants, they may not have the resources to address the client's financial constraints.

Choice D:

Referring the client to a case manager is the most appropriate action in this scenario. A case manager can assess the client's financial situation and connect them with appropriate resources, such as government assistance programs or local charities, to help cover the cost of baby formula. Case managers specialize in coordinating care and addressing social determinants of health.

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Question 16:

A nurse is caring for a client who has paranoid schizophrenia and believes that they are being followed by FBI agents who are pretending to be psychiatric staff.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

A. "What makes you think the staff is following you?” B. "The psychiatric staff is not FBI. They are here to help you.” C. "Why do you feel the staff is the FBI?” D. "This must be very frightening for you. Let's talk more about it.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Asking, "What makes you think the staff is following you?" is a confrontational approach and may not be helpful in building rapport or addressing the client's paranoid beliefs. It can come across as dismissive and may exacerbate the client's anxiety.

Choice B:

Telling the client, "The psychiatric staff is not FBI. They are here to help you," is a straightforward response but may not effectively address the client's concerns or build rapport. It does not acknowledge the client's feelings and may not be well-received.

Choice C:

Asking, "Why do you feel the staff is the FBI?" is a more open-ended and therapeutic approach. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings, providing an opportunity for the nurse to better understand the client's perspective.

Choice D:

Saying, "This must be very frightening for you. Let's talk more about it," is the most empathetic and client-centered response. It acknowledges the client's emotions and offers support. It also opens the door for further discussion and therapeutic communication, allowing the nurse to explore the client's fears and concerns in a non-confrontational manner.

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Question 17:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is about to undergo electroconvulsive therapy.
The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following adverse reactions can occur following the procedure?

A. Tingling of the scalp. B. Temporary memory loss. C. Voice alteration. D. Neck pain.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Tingling of the scalp. Tingling of the scalp is not a common adverse reaction following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) ECT primarily affects the brain and may result in memory-related side effects, but tingling of the scalp is not typically associated with this procedure.

Choice B:

Temporary memory loss. Temporary memory loss is a well-documented and common adverse reaction to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) ECT can affect memory consolidation, and clients may experience temporary memory gaps or difficulties recalling recent events. However, these memory deficits are usually short-term and improve over time.

Choice C:

Voice alteration. Voice alteration is not a common adverse reaction to ECT. ECT is a procedure that involves inducing controlled seizures in the brain, and its primary effects are on cognitive and neurological function rather than the vocal cords or voice.

Choice D:

Neck pain. Neck pain is not a common adverse reaction to ECT. This procedure primarily affects the brain and central nervous system, and neck pain is not typically associated with it.

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Question 18:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for levothyroxine.
Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor?

A. Triiodothyronine. B. Prothrombin time. C. Blood urea nitrogen. D. Serum potassium.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Triiodothyronine. Triiodothyronine (T3) is one of the thyroid hormones, and monitoring its levels is essential when a client is taking levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine (T4), which the body converts into triiodothyronine (T3) Monitoring T3 levels helps ensure that the client's thyroid hormone replacement therapy is effective and that they are not experiencing over- or under-dosage.

Choice B:

Prothrombin time. Monitoring prothrombin time is not typically required for clients taking levothyroxine. Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting and is not directly affected by thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

Choice C:

Blood urea nitrogen. Monitoring blood urea nitrogen is not specifically related to levothyroxine therapy. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function and is not typically affected by thyroid hormone replacement.

Choice D:

Serum potassium. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important for some medications, but it is not a primary concern when a client is taking levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is primarily used to replace or supplement thyroid hormones, and its main focus is on thyroid function.

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Question 19:

A nurse is providing a client with IV fluids and finds that the IV pump screen is malfunctioning.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Replace the IV pump's tubing. B. Clear the settings and reset the IV pump. C. Plug the IV pump's cord into a different outlet. D. Discontinue use and tag the IV pump.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Replace the IV pump's tubing. Replacing the IV pump's tubing is not the appropriate action when the IV pump screen is malfunctioning. Malfunctioning tubing does not typically affect the pump's screen or settings.

Choice B:

Clear the settings and reset the IV pump. Clearing the settings and resetting the IV pump may not be effective if the screen is malfunctioning. It is important to ensure the accuracy and safety of IV fluid administration, and troubleshooting the screen is not a reliable solution in the case of a malfunction.

Choice C:

Plug the IV pump's cord into a different outlet. Changing the outlet may help if the issue is related to electrical power, but it is not the most appropriate action when the IV pump screen is malfunctioning. Safety concerns and potential equipment issues warrant discontinuing use and tagging the pump.

Choice D:

Discontinue use and tag the IV pump. When the IV pump screen is malfunctioning, the safest and most appropriate action is to discontinue its use and tag the pump. This ensures that the malfunctioning equipment is not used on other patients and that a thorough inspection and repair can be conducted to prevent potential harm to the patient.

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Question 20:

A nurse is assisting with a community health education program about childhood communicable diseases.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the presentation?

A. Children who have erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) require short-term antibiotic therapy. B. Administration of childhood immunizations will prevent exanthem subitum (roseola infantum) C. Restrict fluids for children who have pertussis. D. Isolate children who have varicella until the vesicles have formed crusts.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Children who have erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) require short-term antibiotic therapy. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is caused by a virus and does not require antibiotic therapy. It is a self-limiting illness that does not respond to antibiotics.

Choice B:

Administration of childhood immunizations will prevent exanthem subitum (roseola infantum) Exanthem subitum, or roseola infantum, is typically a viral illness and is not prevented by childhood immunizations. It is caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) and human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)

Choice C:

Restrict fluids for children who have pertussis. Restricting fluids for children with pertussis is not recommended. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, can cause severe coughing spells, and it is important to ensure that affected children stay well-hydrated. Restricting fluids can lead to dehydration, which can worsen the condition.

Choice D:

Isolate children who have varicella until the vesicles have formed crusts. Isolation of children with varicella (chickenpox) until the vesicles have formed crusts is a standard infection control measure. Varicella is highly contagious, and isolating affected individuals helps prevent the spread of the virus to others. Once the vesicles have crusted over, the risk of transmission is significantly reduced.

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