Review Ati nurs 307 paediatrics quiz

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Ati nurs 307 paediatrics quiz

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Total Questions : 24

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Question 1:

A nurse is assessing a newborn for manifestations of a large patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Chronic hypoxemia B. Cyanosis with crying C. Weak pulses D. Systolic murmur

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chronic hypoxemia – This is more typical in cyanotic congenital heart defects but is not a hallmark of PDA.

Choice B:

Cyanosis with crying – PDA is an acyanotic defect, meaning it does not typically cause cyanosis.

Choice C:

Weak pulses – PDA results in bounding pulses, not weak pulses, due to increased systolic pressure.

Choice D:

Systolic murmur – A large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) allows blood to flow abnormally from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, creating a continuous "machine-like" systolic murmur due to turbulent blood flow.

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Question 2:

A nurse is administering vaccines at a county health immunization clinic. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to administer the meningococcal conjugate (MCV4) vaccine?

A. A 2-year-old toddler B. A 4-month-old infant C. A 4-year-old child D. An 11-year-old school-age child

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A 2-year-old toddler – Not the standard age for MCV4; however, high-risk infants (e.g., asplenic children) may receive a different meningococcal vaccine.

Choice B:

A 4-month-old infant – Too young for MCV4; infants may receive the MenB vaccine in special cases.

Choice C:

A 4-year-old child – Not part of the routine meningococcal vaccine schedule.

Choice D:

An 11-year-old school-age child – The MCV4 vaccine is recommended at ages 11-12, with a booster at age 16 to protect against bacterial meningitis.

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Question 3:

A nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child who has Tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. single ventricle anatomy, aortic atresia, atrial septal defect B. right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta C. ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta D. overriding aorta, atrial septal defect, left ventricular hypertrophy

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Single ventricle anatomy, aortic atresia, and atrial septal defect are elements of other congenital heart defects such as those seen in hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

Choice B:

Right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect (VSD), and overriding aorta – These four classic defects define Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF).

Choice C:

Atrial septal defect is not part of tetralogy of Fallot.

Choice D:

Atrial septal defect and left ventricular hypertrophy are not part of tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Instead, ventricular septal defect and right ventricular hypertrophy are part of TOF.

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Question 4:

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an expected finding?

A. Bradypnea B. Hypertension C. Flushing of the skin D. Oliguria

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Bradypnea – Clients in shock typically exhibit tachypnea (rapid breathing) as the body attempts to compensate.

Choice B:

Hypertension – Hypovolemic shock causes hypotension due to reduced blood volume.

Choice C:

Flushing of the skin – Clients in shock often have pale, cool, and clammy skin due to vasoconstriction.

Choice D:

Oliguria – Hypovolemic shock reduces blood flow to the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output (<30 mL/hr in adults, <1 mL/kg/hr in children).

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Question 5:

A nurse is assessing a toddler who has heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an expected finding?

A. Increased urine output B. Hypertension. C. Diaphoresis D. Bradycardia

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Increased urine output – Decreased urine output is expected due to poor renal perfusion.

Choice B:

Hypertension – Heart failure in children typically causes low blood pressure due to poor cardiac output.

Choice C:

Diaphoresis – Increased sympathetic nervous system activity in pediatric heart failure leads to excessive sweating, especially during feeding.

Choice D:

Bradycardia – Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a key sign of heart failure as the heart tries to compensate for poor circulation.

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Question 6:

A 6-year-old child has been diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox) and is being cared for at home. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend to the child's parents to prevent complications and promote comfort?

A. Apply warm compresses to the child's lesions to relieve itching B. Encourage the child to take frequent baths with cool water to soothe the itchy skin C. Administer over-the-counter antiviral medication to shorten the duration of the illness D. Keep the child's fingernails short to prevent scratching and minimize the risk of skin infection

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Warm compresses can worsen irritation and are not recommended.

Choice B:

Cool baths help relieve itching by soothing irritated skin without increasing inflammation.

Choice C:

Antiviral medications like acyclovir require a prescription and are typically only given in severe cases or for high-risk children (e.g., immunocompromised).

Choice D:

Keeping the child's nails short reduces the risk of secondary bacterial infections from scratching the lesions.

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Question 7:

A nurse is caring for three toddlers and one preschooler. Which represents the major stressor of hospitalization for these four patients?

A. Separation anxiety B. Loss of control C. Fear of pain D. Fear of bodily injury

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Separation anxiety is the most significant stressor for hospitalized toddlers and preschoolers because they struggle with being away from their parents.

Choice B:

Loss of control is more relevant for older children and adolescents.

Choice C:

While fear of pain is a concern, it is not as predominant as separation anxiety in this age group.

Choice D:

While fear of pain is a concern, it is not as predominant as separation anxiety in this age group.

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Question 8:

A nurse is obtaining a health history from a child who has suspected acute rheumatic fever. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

A. "Has your child had any injuries recently?" B. "Has your son had a sore throat recently?" C. "Was your son born with this cardiac defect?" D. "Have you given your child aspirin in the past 2 weeks?"

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Injuries are unrelated to rheumatic fever.

Choice B:

A recent streptococcal throat infection is the primary risk factor for acute rheumatic fever. The disease is an inflammatory response to untreated or inadequately treated group A streptococcal (GAS) pharyngitis.

Choice C:

Rheumatic fever is not congenital; it is an acquired condition.

Choice D:

Aspirin use is more relevant to Reye’s syndrome, not rheumatic fever.

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Question 9:

Congenital heart defects are classified by which of the following? Select all that apply.

A. Defects with decreased pulmonary blood flow B. Defects with increased pulmonary blood flow C. Cyanotic defect. D. Mixed defects. E. Acyanotic defect. F. Obstructive defects.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Pulmonary blood flow can be either decreased (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) or increased (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect).

Choice B:

Pulmonary blood flow can be either decreased (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) or increased (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect).

Choice C:

Congenital heart defects are further classified as cyanotic (causing low oxygenation, e.g., TOF) or acyanotic (not causing cyanosis, e.g., ventricular septal defect).

Choice D:

Mixed defects involve both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mixing (e.g., transposition of the great arteries).

Choice E:

Congenital heart defects are further classified as cyanotic (causing low oxygenation, e.g., TOF) or acyanotic (not causing cyanosis, e.g., ventricular septal defect).

Choice F:

Obstructive defects involve narrowing of blood flow (e.g., coarctation of the aorta).

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Question 10:

A nurse is preparing to administer the first measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization to a 15-month-old toddler. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for this immunization?

A. The child is currently taking antibiotics for otitis media. B. The child has a cough and a temperature of 37.7° C (99,9° F). C. The child's temperature after the last set of immunizations was 38.3° C (101° F). D. The child has a congenital immunodeficiency.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Antibiotic use does not contraindicate MMR unless the child has a severe illness.

Choice B:

Mild illnesses with low-grade fevers are not contraindications.

Choice C:

A past mild fever from previous vaccines is not a contraindication.

Choice D:

MMR is a live vaccine and is contraindicated in children with congenital immunodeficiencies (e.g., SCID) because it can cause severe infections.

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Total Questions : 24

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Ati nurs 307 paediatrics quiz

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