Review ATI NS113 Paediatrics exam

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ATI NS113 Paediatrics exam

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Total Questions : 53

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Question 1:

A 3-year-old child is diagnosed with otitis media.
What is a key sign the nurse might expect the caregiver to report?

A. The child stares blankly for prolonged periods. B. The child rubs or pulls at the affected ear. C. The child shows hyperactivity. D. The child sleeps excessively.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Blank staring for prolonged periods is not a typical sign of otitis media. While changes in behavior can occur with illness, this specific symptom is more indicative of neurological issues like absence seizures rather than an ear infection. Neurological assessments would be necessary to evaluate this finding, which is outside the typical presentation of otitis media.

Choice B:

Rubbing or pulling at the affected ear is a common behavioral manifestation of otitis media in young children. The inflammation and pressure within the middle ear cause pain and discomfort, leading the child to touch or tug at their ear in an attempt to alleviate the sensation. This localized physical sign strongly suggests an issue within the ear itself.

Choice C:

Hyperactivity is not a primary indicator of otitis media. While a child experiencing discomfort might be irritable or restless, true hyperactivity is a distinct behavioral pattern often associated with other conditions like attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and is not directly linked to a middle ear infection.

Choice D:

Excessive sleepiness is not a typical presenting symptom of otitis media. While a child might be slightly more tired due to the general discomfort of an infection, excessive somnolence would be more concerning for a systemic illness or a neurological issue, rather than a localized ear infection.

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Question 2:

A 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with partial-thickness burns covering the face and neck after a kitchen accident.
Which assessment should the nurse prioritize upon the child's arrival?

A. Observing for signs of respiratory distress. B. Monitoring vital signs for indications of shock. C. Obtaining a detailed history of the burn incident. D. Evaluating the extent and depth of the burns.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Observing for signs of respiratory distress is the priority assessment for a child with burns to the face and neck. Burns in this area can lead to airway edema and compromise, which can rapidly become life-threatening. Assessing for stridor, hoarseness, difficulty breathing, and changes in respiratory rate and effort is crucial for immediate intervention.

Choice B:

Monitoring vital signs for indications of shock is important in burn patients due to fluid shifts and potential hypovolemia. However, airway patency takes precedence, as inadequate oxygenation will quickly lead to irreversible damage. Vital signs should be monitored continuously after ensuring the airway is secure.

Choice C:

Obtaining a detailed history of the burn incident is necessary for understanding the mechanism of injury and potential associated trauma. However, the immediate priority is to assess and manage any threats to the child's airway, breathing, and circulation. History taking can occur once the child is stable.

Choice D:

Evaluating the extent and depth of the burns is crucial for determining the severity of the injury and guiding fluid resuscitation and wound care. However, ensuring a patent airway and adequate breathing is the immediate priority upon the child's arrival in the emergency department.

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Question 3:

A nurse in a pediatric clinic is assessing a 6-week-old infant whose parent reports frequent episodes of inconsolable crying, especially in the evening, lasting several hours and several weeks.
The infant has a normal physical exam, is gaining weight appropriately, and feeds well.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend to the parent to help manage the infant's symptoms?

A. Provide tummy time immediately after each feeding. B. Change the infant's formula to a soy-based formula. C. Administer omeprazole drops with every feeding. D. Offer soothing techniques such as swaddling and rhythmic rocking during crying episodes.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Providing tummy time immediately after each feeding is generally discouraged for infants, especially those with reflux or colic-like symptoms. It can increase pressure on the abdomen and potentially worsen discomfort or lead to spitting up. Tummy time is beneficial for development but should be done when the infant is awake and not immediately after eating.

Choice B:

Changing the infant's formula to a soy-based formula is not a first-line recommendation for managing inconsolable crying in a 6-week-old with a normal physical exam and weight gain. While some infants may have sensitivities to cow's milk protein, a formula change should only be considered after other potential causes, like colic, have been explored and under the guidance of a healthcare provider.

Choice C:

Administering omeprazole drops, a proton pump inhibitor that reduces stomach acid, is not indicated for a 6-week-old infant with inconsolable crying, normal weight gain, and feeding. Omeprazole is used to treat conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with documented symptoms beyond typical infant spitting up. Routine use for crying is not recommended and could have potential side effects.

Choice D:

Offering soothing techniques such as swaddling and rhythmic rocking are evidence-based interventions for managing inconsolable crying in young infants, often associated with colic. Swaddling provides a sense of security, mimicking the womb, while rhythmic rocking can be calming and help regulate the infant's nervous system. These non-pharmacological approaches are recommended as initial management strategies for unexplained crying in healthy infants.

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Question 4:

A 15-year-old patient presents to the clinic with this rash transmitted.
They report spending time hiking in wooded areas two weeks ago.
Identify what arachnid caused this rash, and what is the name of the disease that can be.

A. A tick caused the rash, and the disease is Lyme disease. B. A spider caused the rash, and the disease is Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. A mite caused the rash, and the disease is scabies. D. A chigger caused the rash, and the disease is chigger dermatitis.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A tick is the arachnid responsible for transmitting Lyme disease. The characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease is erythema migrans, often described as a "bull's-eye" rash, which can appear days to weeks after a bite from an infected blacklegged tick (Ixodes scapularis or Ixodes pacificus). Spending time in wooded areas increases the risk of tick exposure.

Choice B:

Spiders are arachnids, but they are not the primary vector for Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected American dog ticks (Dermacentor variabilis) or Rocky Mountain wood ticks (Dermacentor andersoni). The rash associated with this disease typically starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads centrally.

Choice C:

Mites are arachnids, and certain types cause scabies, a contagious skin infestation characterized by intense itching and a pimple-like rash due to the burrowing of the Sarcoptes scabiei mite into the skin. While hiking in wooded areas could potentially lead to exposure to some types of mites, the rash of scabies has a distinct presentation and transmission pattern different from Lyme disease.

Choice D:

Chiggers are also mites (arachnids) that can be found in wooded areas. Their bites cause chigger dermatitis, characterized by intensely itchy red welts or bumps where the larvae have attached to the skin. While the history of hiking is relevant to potential exposure to chiggers, the rash and the associated disease are distinct from the erythema migrans rash of Lyme disease. .

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Question 5:

A child with acute glomerulonephritis is experiencing hematuria.
Which intervention is most appropriate?

A. Administer analgesics. B. Provide a high-protein diet. C. Monitor urine output. D. Encourage fluid intake.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Analgesics might mask pain, which is an important indicator of the child's condition and potential complications. While pain management is crucial, it is not the most immediate or specific intervention for hematuria in acute glomerulonephritis. The primary focus is on managing the kidney inflammation and its effects.

Choice B:

A high-protein diet is generally contraindicated in acute glomerulonephritis, especially when kidney function is compromised. Damaged glomeruli struggle to filter protein waste products, leading to increased urea and potential azotemia. Dietary protein is usually restricted during the acute phase to reduce the workload on the kidneys.

Choice C:

Monitoring urine output is essential in acute glomerulonephritis as it directly reflects kidney function. Reduced urine output (oliguria) or its cessation (anuria) can indicate worsening kidney failure. Close monitoring helps assess the severity of the condition and the effectiveness of treatment interventions aimed at preserving renal function. Normal urine output for children varies with age and weight but is generally around 1-2 mL/kg/hour.

Choice D:

While maintaining adequate hydration is important, encouraging excessive fluid intake in a child with acute glomerulonephritis and hematuria can lead to fluid overload. Impaired kidney function can result in the inability to excrete excess fluid, potentially causing hypertension, edema, and even heart failure. Fluid balance must be carefully managed.

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Question 6:

A 7-year-old child accidentally touches a hot stove, resulting in redness on his palm without blisters.
What type of burn is this?

A. First-degree burn. B. Second-degree burn. C. Third-degree burn. D. Full-thickness burn.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A first-degree burn involves only the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. It is characterized by redness (erythema), pain, and dryness, without the formation of blisters. The superficial damage affects the outer layer of epithelial cells, causing vasodilation and inflammation, leading to the observed redness and discomfort.

Choice B:

A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and a portion of the dermis, the layer beneath the epidermis. These burns are characterized by blisters, significant pain, redness, and swelling. The damage extends deeper into the skin, affecting nerve endings and blood vessels, leading to fluid leakage and blister formation.

Choice C:

A third-degree burn involves the destruction of the epidermis and the entire dermis, potentially extending into the subcutaneous tissue. These burns appear white or charred, are often painless initially due to nerve damage, and lack blisters. The full thickness destruction of skin layers impairs sensation and requires significant medical intervention, often including skin grafting.

Choice D:

Full-thickness burn is another term for a third-degree burn, indicating that all layers of the skin have been destroyed. This type of burn extends through the epidermis and dermis and may involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, muscle, or bone. The appearance is typically dry, leathery, and may be white, charred, or waxy.

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Question 7:

A 7-year-old child accidentally touches a hot stove, resulting in redness on his palm without blisters.
What layer of the skin is affected?

A. Epidermis. B. Dermis. C. Subcutaneous tissue. D. Muscle tissue.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, providing a protective barrier against the external environment. A first-degree burn, characterized by redness and pain without blisters, affects only this superficial layer. The heat causes vasodilation in the dermal blood vessels beneath the epidermis, resulting in the visible redness.

Choice B:

The dermis is the layer of skin beneath the epidermis, containing structures like hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. Second-degree burns extend into the dermis, causing damage to these structures and leading to blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged blood vessels within this layer.

Choice C:

The subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) is the deepest layer of the skin, composed mainly of fat and connective tissue. Third-degree or full-thickness burns extend into this layer, damaging or destroying it along with the epidermis and dermis.

Choice D:

Muscle tissue lies beneath the subcutaneous tissue and is not typically directly affected in a superficial burn that only causes redness without blisters. Burns that reach muscle tissue are very deep and would present with significant tissue damage and likely charring.

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Question 8:

A 7-year-old child accidentally touches a hot stove, resulting in redness on his palm without blisters.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?

A. Immerse the burn in cool tap water for at least 10 minutes. B. Cover the burn with a dry, sterile gauze bandage immediately. C. Apply a topical antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. D. Apply an ice pack to the burned area to reduce swelling.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Immersing a first-degree burn in cool tap water for at least 10 minutes helps to cool the burned tissue, reducing pain, inflammation, and the extent of tissue damage. The cool water dissipates the heat absorbed by the skin, preventing further injury to the epidermal cells and underlying tissues.

Choice B:

Covering a fresh burn with a dry, sterile gauze bandage is important to protect it from contamination and further injury after it has been adequately cooled. However, the immediate initial action should focus on stopping the burning process and cooling the affected area to minimize tissue damage.

Choice C:

Applying a topical antibiotic ointment is generally recommended for burns to prevent infection, but this is not the most appropriate initial action immediately after the burn occurs. Cooling the burn takes precedence to reduce heat damage. Antibiotic ointment is usually applied after the initial cooling and cleaning of the wound.

Choice D:

Applying an ice pack directly to a burn can cause further tissue damage due to vasoconstriction and potential frostbite. While cooling is beneficial, it should be done gently with cool running water or immersion in cool tap water, not with intense cold like an ice pack directly on the skin.

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Question 9:

A 7-year-old child enjoys building models and participating in team sports.
What developmental stage is this consistent with?

A. Industry vs inferiority. B. Initiative vs guilt. C. Autonomy vs shame. D. Identity vs role confusion.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The industry vs inferiority stage, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, occurs during middle childhood (approximately 6 to 12 years). Children in this stage focus on mastering new skills and knowledge, developing a sense of competence and industry through activities like building models and participating in team sports. Success in these endeavors leads to a feeling of accomplishment, while failure can result in feelings of inferiority.

Choice B:

The initiative vs guilt stage occurs during the preschool years (approximately 3 to 5 years). Children in this stage are eager to take on new tasks and activities, developing a sense of initiative. However, if their efforts are met with criticism or failure, they may develop feelings of guilt.

Choice C:

The autonomy vs shame and doubt stage occurs during early childhood (approximately 18 months to 3 years). Children in this stage are focused on developing independence and self-control. Success in achieving autonomy leads to feelings of confidence, while failure can result in shame and doubt about their abilities.

Choice D:

The identity vs role confusion stage occurs during adolescence (approximately 12 to 18 years). During this stage, individuals are exploring their sense of self and trying to establish their identity in various aspects of life. Failure to establish a clear sense of identity can lead to role confusion.

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Question 10:

The nurse is evaluating a 7-month-old infant brought in for excessive crying and vomiting.
Which finding supports a diagnosis of intussusception?

A. Currant jelly stools and drawing knees to chest. B. Ribbon-like stools and visible peristalsis. C. Explosive watery diarrhea and fever. D. Bright red blood in stool with no other symptoms.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Currant jelly stools (stools mixed with blood and mucus) and drawing the knees to the chest are classic signs and symptoms of intussusception in infants. The telescoping of one part of the intestine into another leads to bowel obstruction, inflammation, and bleeding, resulting in the characteristic stool appearance and abdominal pain that causes the infant to draw their knees up in an attempt to relieve the discomfort.

Choice B:

Ribbon-like stools and visible peristalsis are more characteristic of Hirschsprung's disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon), a condition where a segment of the colon lacks nerve cells, impairing motility and leading to constipation and a narrowed segment of the bowel. Visible peristalsis can occur due to the bowel trying to push stool through the narrowed segment.

Choice C:

Explosive watery diarrhea and fever are typical signs of gastroenteritis, an inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract usually caused by a viral or bacterial infection. While vomiting can occur in both conditions, the stool characteristics and the presence of fever are more indicative of gastroenteritis rather than intussusception.

Choice D:

Bright red blood in the stool without other symptoms is less specific to intussusception. While blood can be present, it is usually mixed with mucus, giving the currant jelly appearance. Bright red blood alone might suggest other conditions like anal fissures or lower gastrointestinal bleeding. .

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Total Questions : 53

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ATI NS113 Paediatrics exam

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