Choice A rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen
receptor modulator (SERM) and is primarily used in breast cancer treatment. It functions by
binding to estrogen receptors, blocking estrogen's effects, and inhibiting the growth of
hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells.
Choice B rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition in which tissue
similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside the uterus, and it is typically managed with
hormonal therapies, pain medications, or surgical interventions, but not tamoxifen.
Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Tamoxifen is widely used in the treatment of breast cancer,
especially in cases of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. It helps prevent cancer
recurrence and is often prescribed for both early-stage and advanced breast cancer patients.
Choice D rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a hormonal
disorder characterized by enlarged ovaries with small cysts, and it is typically managed with
lifestyle changes, hormonal contraceptives, and medications to regulate menstrual cycles and
manage symptoms like hirsutism and acne.

The correct answers are C, D, E.

Choice A reason:

Performing a vaginal exam is contraindicated in placenta previa because it can disrupt the placenta and cause significant bleeding.

Choice B reason:

Monitoring fetal heart rate with an internal fetal monitor is not recommended as it involves a vaginal exam, which poses a risk of bleeding in placenta previa cases.

Choice C reason:

Frequently assessing maternal heart rate is important to detect any changes that could indicate maternal hemorrhage or other complications.

Choice D reason:

Initiating bed rest with bathroom privileges is advised to minimize the risk of bleeding and to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.

Choice E reason:

Having oxygen equipment available is essential to manage potential fetal distress, which can occur with placenta previa.

Choice A rationale:

This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test does not involve receiving medication through an

IV. It is a simple and non-invasive test that monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its movements.

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct choice. A nonstress test typically takes about 30 minutes to complete. During the test, the client will have a fetal heart rate monitor placed on her abdomen to measure the baby's heart rate while it is moving.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. There is no requirement for the client to fast or restrict food and drink before a nonstress test. The client can eat and drink as usual before the procedure.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test is not used to determine if the baby's lungs are mature. Instead, it assesses the baby's heart rate patterns in response to its own movements, which helps evaluate the baby's overall well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy.

Choice A rationale:

The client's statement about needing to have the IUD replaced each year is incorrect. The lifespan of most IUDs is longer than a year. Copper IUDs can last up to 10 years, and hormonal IUDs can last between 3 to 7 years, depending on the brand.

Choice B rationale:

The client's statement about needing to apply a spermicide prior to intercourse is unrelated to the correct use of an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Spermicides are not required when using an IUD.

Choice C rationale:

The client's statement about expecting periods to stop while having the IUD is incorrect. Hormonal IUDs can often lead to lighter periods, and in some cases, periods may stop altogether. However, with a copper IUD, periods usually remain the same.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct choice. The client's statement indicates an understanding of the teaching. Checking for the string each month after menstruation is crucial because it confirms that the IUD is still in place, reducing the risk of unintended pregnancy.

Choice A rationale:

This is the correct choice. The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends keeping children in a rear-facing car seat until they reach the age of 2 or until they reach the maximum weight and height allowed by the car seat's manufacturer. This is because rear- facing seats provide better support for a baby's head, neck, and spine during a crash, reducing the risk of injury.

Choice B rationale:

Placing the retainer clip over the upper part of the baby's abdomen is incorrect and potentially dangerous. The retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.

Choice C rationale:

Placing the baby in the car seat at a 90-degree angle is not necessary. The car seat should be installed according to the manufacturer's instructions, and the angle will vary based on the specific car seat model.

Choice D rationale:

Placing the shoulder harness straps in the slots an inch above the baby's shoulders is incorrect. The straps should be positioned at or below the baby's shoulders for rear-facing car seats and at or above the shoulders for forward-facing seats.

Choice A rationale:

An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. Normal axillary temperature for a newborn is typically between 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F).

Choice B rationale:

This is the correct choice. Nasal flaring in a newborn is a concerning sign and may indicate respiratory distress. It suggests that the baby is having difficulty breathing and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation.

Choice C rationale:

A heart rate of 158/min is within the normal range for a newborn. The normal heart rate for a newborn can range from 100 to 160 beats per minute.

Choice D rationale:

Having one void since birth is not a concerning finding for a 10-hour-old newborn. In the early hours of life, the frequency of voids may vary, but the baby should have an increasing number of wet diapers in the following days.

Choice C rationale:

The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.

Choice A rationale:

Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.

Choice D rationale:

Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.

Choice D rationale:

During the transition phase of labor, the nurse should encourage the client to use a pant- blow breathing pattern. The transition phase is intense, and pant-blow breathing (a form of controlled breathing) can help the client manage the pain and reduce anxiety. Panting during contractions allows the client to focus on short, shallow breaths, which can be more effective than deep breathing during this stage.

Choice A rationale:

Assisting the client to void every 3 hours is important during labor, but it is not specific to the transition phase. The nurse should encourage the client to void regularly during the entire labor process to prevent bladder distension and facilitate the descent of the baby. However, during the transition phase, the client may be more focused on contractions and may not need reminders to void every 3 hours.

Choice B rationale:

Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is not appropriate during the transition phase of labor. The transition phase is characterized by frequent and strong contractions, and continuous monitoring of contractions is usually required during this phase to ensure fetal well-being and progress in labor.

Choice C rationale:

Placing the client into a lithotomy position is not appropriate during the transition phase of labor. The lithotomy position, where the client lies on their back with legs raised and supported in stirrups, is often used during the pushing phase. During the transition phase, it is more common for the client to be in an upright or semi-reclining position to facilitate the descent of the baby through the birth canal.

Choice A rationale:

The client's statement, "I will check the identification badge of anyone who removes my baby from our room,” indicates an understanding of newborn safety. This statement shows the client's awareness of the importance of verifying the identity of anyone handling their baby before allowing them to be taken out of the room. Checking identification badges helps ensure that only authorized personnel, such as nurses or hospital staff, are allowed to handle the newborn, reducing the risk of unauthorized individuals taking the baby.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect and does not demonstrate an understanding of newborn safety. Including a photo of the baby along with public birth announcements to social media can compromise the baby's security and privacy. It may expose sensitive information about the baby's location and identity, making the baby vulnerable to potential risks.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect as it poses a safety risk to the newborn. Allowing the baby to sleep on the bed when the client is in the shower increases the risk of falls or suffocation. The baby should always be placed in a safe sleep environment, such as a crib or bassinet, to minimize the risk of accidents.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect and does not reflect an understanding of newborn safety. Nurses should not carry the baby in their arms to the nursery. Instead, they should use a crib or an infant carrier to transport the baby safely.

Choice A rationale:

This statement is incorrect. The client should receive Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) if they are Rh-negative and their partner's Rh status is unknown or Rh-positive. This prevents the development of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood, which could be harmful in future pregnancies if the baby is Rh-positive.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to an Rh-negative mother within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive. This is done to prevent the mother from developing Rh antibodies that could affect subsequent pregnancies.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. There is no restriction on receiving other immunizations after receiving Rh(D) immune globulin. The shot only protects against Rh incompatibility and does not interfere with other immunizations.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is correct. Rh(D) immune globulin can be given after birth to an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive baby. This helps protect the mother's future pregnancies from the potential harmful effects of Rh incompatibility.