A nurse is teaching a pregnant client who is Rh-negative about Rh(D) immune globulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"If my partner is Rh-negative, I will not receive the shot.”
"I will receive the shot after delivery if my baby is Rh-negative.”
"I should not receive any immunizations for 3 months after the shot.”
"This shot may be given after birth to protect future pregnancies.”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. The client should receive Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) if they are Rh-negative and their partner's Rh status is unknown or Rh-positive. This prevents the development of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood, which could be harmful in future pregnancies if the baby is Rh-positive.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to an Rh-negative mother within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive. This is done to prevent the mother from developing Rh antibodies that could affect subsequent pregnancies.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. There is no restriction on receiving other immunizations after receiving Rh(D) immune globulin. The shot only protects against Rh incompatibility and does not interfere with other immunizations.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is correct. Rh(D) immune globulin can be given after birth to an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive baby. This helps protect the mother's future pregnancies from the potential harmful effects of Rh incompatibility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
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