A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postpartum and is taking a sitz bath. To determine the client's tolerance of the procedure, which of the following assessments should the nurse perform?
Bladder distention.
Pulse rate.
Respiratory rate.
Color of lochia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Assessing for bladder distention is important for postpartum clients, especially those who have undergone perineal trauma during childbirth. However, it is not the priority assessment during a sitz bath. The sitz bath is usually done to promote healing and comfort, and monitoring pulse rate takes precedence to identify any adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Pulse rate should be the priority assessment during a sitz bath for a postpartum client. Sitz baths can cause vasodilation, leading to a potential drop in blood pressure, increased heart rate, or dizziness. Monitoring the pulse rate helps identify any cardiovascular changes or adverse reactions.
Choice C rationale:
Respiratory rate is not the priority assessment during a sitz bath. It is essential to monitor, but it is less likely to be affected directly by the sitz bath compared to the pulse rate and cardiovascular changes.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the color of lochia is essential for assessing postpartum bleeding and uterine healing. However, during a sitz bath, the priority assessment should be focused on cardiovascular changes and any adverse reactions the client might experience.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, and Para indicates the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (at least 20 weeks) Since the client has
been pregnant for the fourth time and delivered two full-term newborns (reached viability), she is gravida 4, and since she had one spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks of gestation, she is para 2 (two pregnancies reached viability)
Choice B rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had three pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice, as explained above. Choice D rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had four pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.