A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postpartum and is taking a sitz bath. To determine the client's tolerance of the procedure, which of the following assessments should the nurse perform?
Bladder distention.
Pulse rate.
Respiratory rate.
Color of lochia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Assessing for bladder distention is important for postpartum clients, especially those who have undergone perineal trauma during childbirth. However, it is not the priority assessment during a sitz bath. The sitz bath is usually done to promote healing and comfort, and monitoring pulse rate takes precedence to identify any adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Pulse rate should be the priority assessment during a sitz bath for a postpartum client. Sitz baths can cause vasodilation, leading to a potential drop in blood pressure, increased heart rate, or dizziness. Monitoring the pulse rate helps identify any cardiovascular changes or adverse reactions.
Choice C rationale:
Respiratory rate is not the priority assessment during a sitz bath. It is essential to monitor, but it is less likely to be affected directly by the sitz bath compared to the pulse rate and cardiovascular changes.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the color of lochia is essential for assessing postpartum bleeding and uterine healing. However, during a sitz bath, the priority assessment should be focused on cardiovascular changes and any adverse reactions the client might experience.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Assess the fetal heart rate pattern.
Choice B rationale:
When a laboring client's membranes have just ruptured, the nurse's next action should be to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. Rupture of membranes can lead to changes in amniotic fluid, which can affect the fetal environment and potentially cause fetal distress. By assessing the fetal heart rate pattern, the nurse can determine if the baby is tolerating the labor process well or if there are signs of fetal compromise that require further intervention.
Choice A rationale:
While assessing the client's blood pressure (Choice A) is important during labor, it is not the immediate next action when the membranes have ruptured.
Choice C rationale:
Taking the client's temperature (Choice C) is also important, but it is not the priority action when the membranes have ruptured.
Choice D rationale:
Preparing for a c-section (Choice D) is not the initial action unless there are specific indications for an emergency cesarean section. Assessing the fetal heart rate is more critical at this stage.
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