A client has been prescribed raloxifene. As the nurse, you know that raloxifene is used to treat:.
Migraines.
Hypertension.
Osteoporosis.
Heart disease.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Current guidelines recommend that women aged 21 to 29 have a Pap test every three years, and those aged 30 to 65 can either have a Pap test every three years or a Pap plus HPV (human papillomavirus) test every five years. After age 65, and with a history of normal results, Pap tests may be discontinued.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not include choice B, "Pap tests are discontinued following removal of the ovaries,” in the teaching. The presence or absence of ovaries does not affect the need for Pap testing. The Pap test is primarily used to screen for cervical cancer, and its necessity is determined based on age and previous screening results, not on ovarian status.
Choice C rationale:
Patients are advised to avoid sexual intercourse, douching, or using vaginal medications for 24 hours before the test to ensure accurate results.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not include choice D, "Viral infections can be detected by a Pap test,” in the teaching. The Pap test is not designed to detect viral infections. Instead, it is used to detect abnormal cervical cells, which may indicate pre-cancerous or cancerous changes.
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