A nurse is caring for a client who has just delivered her first newborn. The nurse anticipates hyperbilirubinemia due to Rh incompatibility. The nurse should understand that hyperbilirubinemia occurs with Rh incompatibility for which of the following reasons?
The client's blood does not contain the Rh factor, so she produces anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placental barrier and cause hemolysis of red blood cells in newborns.
The client's blood contains the Rh factor, and the newborn's does not, and antibodies that destroy red blood cells are formed in the fetus.
The client has a history of receiving a transfusion with Rh-negative blood.
The client's anti-A and anti-B antibodies cross the placenta and cause the destruction of the fetal red blood cells.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative client is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, typically during a prior pregnancy or delivery. The client’s immune system produces anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies, attacking the Rh-positive red blood cells of the fetus. This hemolysis releases bilirubin, leading to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Rh incompatibility only occurs when the client is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive. An Rh-positive client will not form antibodies against an Rh-negative fetus, as their immune system recognizes the Rh factor as normal.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is not related to the mechanism of Rh incompatibility. Receiving a transfusion with Rh-negative blood would not cause the mother's immune system to produce anti-Rh antibodies or lead to Rh incompatibility with her newborn.
Choice D rationale:
This choice describes the ABO blood group system, not the Rh factor. ABO incompatibility can occur when a mother with blood type O (producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies) has a newborn with blood type A, B, or AB, leading to hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. However, the question specifically mentions Rh incompatibility, which involves the Rh factor, not the ABO system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use are indicative of abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae is a medical emergency where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall before delivery, leading to severe bleeding and abdominal pain. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is a gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs due to an abnormal pregnancy. It is not associated with continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Instead, clients with this condition often present with vaginal bleeding and a grape-like cluster of cysts in the uterus.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor involves regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. While preterm labor can cause abdominal discomfort, it is not usually described as continuous abdominal pain. Vaginal bleeding is not a typical symptom of preterm labor.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the opening of the cervix. It can cause painless vaginal bleeding, but it is not usually associated with continuous abdominal pain. Clients with placenta previa often experience sudden, painless bleeding later in pregnancy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
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