Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Multiparity.

Endometriosis.

Under 40 years of age.

Use of contraceptive medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.

Choice C rationale:

Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.

Choice D rationale:

Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Breastfeeding is the recommended first line of action for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL, which is on the lower end of the normal range (normal range: 40-60 mg/dL for a newborn). Breast milk provides a natural source of glucose and other nutrients essential for the newborn's growth and development. It also facilitates bonding and has immunological benefits. Early initiation of breastfeeding helps to stabilize the blood glucose levels naturally.

Choice B reason:

Gavage feeding 60 mL of glucose water is not the first choice for managing borderline low blood glucose levels in a newborn. This method is typically reserved for infants who cannot feed orally due to medical conditions or prematurity. It is an invasive procedure and can be stressful for the newborn.

Choice C reason:

Administering 10 mL of D5W (5% dextrose in water) via IV is a treatment for hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels), not for borderline low levels like 40 mg/dL. This intervention is usually considered when blood glucose levels are significantly lower than the normal range and the infant is symptomatic or unable to tolerate oral feedings.

Choice D reason:

Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours is a passive approach and may not be appropriate for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Immediate action, such as feeding, is preferred to prevent potential hypoglycemia and its associated risks.

A. Digoxin. B. Calcium gluconate. C. Vitamin Bs. D. Propranolol.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside and is primarily used in the management of certain heart conditions, such as heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum, which is severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Calcium gluconate is a mineral supplement used to treat calcium deficiencies. It is not a standard treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum.

Choice C rationale:

Vitamin Bs (B6 and B12) are commonly used to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, has been shown to alleviate nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Vitamin B12 may also be administered to help manage symptoms. Both vitamins are safe to use during pregnancy.

Choice D rationale:

Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, heart conditions, and migraines. It is not recommended for managing hyperemesis gravidarum and is generally avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus.

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Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?

Prior to an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of women about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?