Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Multiparity.

Endometriosis.

Under 40 years of age.

Use of contraceptive medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.

Choice C rationale:

Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.

Choice D rationale:

Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rh(D) immune globulin should be seen soon but not necessarily first. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers with Rh- positive infants to prevent isoimmunization in future pregnancies.

Choice B rationale:

A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness is likely experiencing normal postpartum breast engorgement. This client can be attended to after the client with more urgent symptoms.

Choice C rationale:

A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output might have diuresis, which is a common postpartum physiological change. Although this requires assessment, it is not as urgent as the client in choice D.

Choice D rationale:

The nurse should see the client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour first because excessive postpartum bleeding could indicate hemorrhage, a potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial in this situation.

A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position. B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. C. The posterior fontanel is palpable. D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.

Choice B rationale:

The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.

Choice C rationale:

The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.

Choice D rationale:

This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.

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Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who has just delivered her first newborn. The nurse anticipates hyperbilirubinemia due to Rh incompatibility. The nurse should understand that hyperbilirubinemia occurs with Rh incompatibility for which of the following reasons?

Prior to an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

A nurse is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the nurse instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?

A nurse is caring for a newborn whose father voices concerns about his ability to bond with his baby. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to facilitate bonding? (Select all that apply.)

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A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full- term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

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