A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus.

Document the findings as within normal limits.

Gently massage the client's fundus.

Encourage the client to ambulate.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Assisting the client to void is a priority intervention in this situation. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent it from contracting effectively, leading to a boggy and high- positioned fundus. After the client empties her bladder, the nurse should reassess the fundus to ensure it has descended to its appropriate location, which is usually at or just below the level of the umbilicus.

Choice B rationale:

Documenting the findings as within normal limits is incorrect because a firm, displaced fundus that is 3 cm above the umbilicus is not considered normal. This finding indicates that the uterus is not contracting adequately, and the nurse should take appropriate actions to address the issue.

Choice C rationale:

Gently massaging the client's fundus is not the correct intervention in this case. Massaging a firm fundus could cause uterine irritation and should be avoided. Instead, the nurse should encourage the client to empty her bladder, which often helps the uterus contract and descend to its proper position.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the client to ambulate may be helpful in some cases to promote uterine contractions and involution. However, in this situation, the priority is to address the full bladder, as it is a common cause of a displaced and high fundus shortly after delivery.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.

Choice B rationale:

Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.

Choice C rationale:

Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.

Choice D rationale:

Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.

A. Abruptio placentae. B. Hydatidiform mole. C. Preterm labor. D. Placenta previa.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.

Choice B rationale:

Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.

Choice C rationale:

Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.

Choice D rationale:

Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B- hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Following delivery, the nurse places the newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Which of the following is this action used to prevent?

A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?