A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hypotonicity.
Moderate tremors of the extremities.
Axillary temperature 36.1°C (96.9°F)
Excessive sleeping.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Hypotonicity, or decreased muscle tone, is not an expected finding in a newborn experiencing opioid withdrawals. Opioid withdrawal symptoms usually involve increased muscle tone and jitteriness.
Choice B rationale:
Moderate tremors of the extremities are an expected finding in a newborn experiencing opioid withdrawals. Neonates born to mothers who used opioids during pregnancy can exhibit tremors, irritability, and other withdrawal symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
An axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F) is within the normal range for a newborn's body temperature, so it is not directly related to opioid withdrawal and is not the expected finding in this situation.
Choice D rationale:
Excessive sleeping is not an expected finding in a newborn experiencing opioid withdrawals. Opioid withdrawal can lead to increased wakefulness and irritability in newborns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen
receptor modulator (SERM) and is primarily used in breast cancer treatment. It functions by
binding to estrogen receptors, blocking estrogen's effects, and inhibiting the growth of
hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells.
Choice B rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition in which tissue
similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside the uterus, and it is typically managed with
hormonal therapies, pain medications, or surgical interventions, but not tamoxifen.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Tamoxifen is widely used in the treatment of breast cancer,
especially in cases of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. It helps prevent cancer
recurrence and is often prescribed for both early-stage and advanced breast cancer patients.
Choice D rationale:
Tamoxifen is not used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is a hormonal
disorder characterized by enlarged ovaries with small cysts, and it is typically managed with
lifestyle changes, hormonal contraceptives, and medications to regulate menstrual cycles and
manage symptoms like hirsutism and acne.
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