A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rh(D) immune globulin should be seen soon but not necessarily first. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers with Rh- positive infants to prevent isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale:
A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness is likely experiencing normal postpartum breast engorgement. This client can be attended to after the client with more urgent symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output might have diuresis, which is a common postpartum physiological change. Although this requires assessment, it is not as urgent as the client in choice D.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should see the client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour first because excessive postpartum bleeding could indicate hemorrhage, a potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial in this situation.
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