A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension is a finding that indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output. Excessive vaginal bleeding can lead to hypovolemia, reducing the volume of blood pumped by the heart and resulting in decreased cardiac output. The body responds to hypovolemia and decreased cardiac output by trying to maintain blood pressure, which leads to hypotension.
Choice A rationale:
Bradycardia is not a finding indicating decreased cardiac output in this scenario. While bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) can be associated with decreased cardiac output in certain situations, it is not the primary finding in a postpartum client experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
A flushed face is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. A flushed face may result from various factors such as fever or emotional stress, but it is not directly related to cardiac output.
Choice D rationale:
Polyuria (excessive urination) is not an indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria may occur due to factors like diuresis or increased fluid intake but is not directly related to cardiac output in the context of excessive vaginal bleeding.
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