A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
Heart disease.
Cervical dilation of 2 cm.
Gestational age of 34 weeks.
Allergy to penicillin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Postpartum depression is a more severe and prolonged form of emotional response to childbirth. It involves persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and difficulty bonding with the baby. The symptoms of postpartum depression are different from what the client is experiencing, so this choice is not correct.
Choice B rationale:
The taking-in phase is a normal emotional response to birth, where the mother is focused on her own needs and experiences during the immediate postpartum period. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Choice C rationale:
The postpartum blues, also known as the "baby blues,” is the correct choice. It is a common and transient emotional response to birth experienced by many new mothers. The mother may feel overwhelmed, have mood swings, and cry for no apparent reason. These symptoms usually resolve on their own within a few days to a couple of weeks, and supportive care is typically sufficient.
Choice D rationale:
The taking-hold phase is a phase where the mother becomes more confident in her caregiving abilities and starts to take a more active role in caring for her baby. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply
Choice A reason:
Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.
Choice B reason:
Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.
Choice C reason:
Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.
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