A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
Cesarean birth.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Hypotension.
Uterine atony.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature ovarian failure affects the ovaries and leads to early menopause, resulting in the loss of the woman's reproductive ability. This condition can cause infertility due to the depletion or dysfunction of eggs in the ovaries, hindering conception.
Choice B rationale:
Renal calculi (kidney stones) do not directly impact fertility. It is a condition unrelated to the reproductive system.
Choice C rationale:
Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation and, while it can be uncomfortable, it does not necessarily affect fertility.
Choice D rationale:
Recurrent urinary tract infections may be a concern for overall health but do not necessarily directly impact fertility unless there are severe complications. They are unrelated to infertility assessment.
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