A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
Cesarean birth.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Hypotension.
Uterine atony.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
Choice C rationale:
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
Choice D rationale:
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Breastfeeding is the recommended first line of action for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL, which is on the lower end of the normal range (normal range: 40-60 mg/dL for a newborn). Breast milk provides a natural source of glucose and other nutrients essential for the newborn's growth and development. It also facilitates bonding and has immunological benefits. Early initiation of breastfeeding helps to stabilize the blood glucose levels naturally.
Choice B reason:
Gavage feeding 60 mL of glucose water is not the first choice for managing borderline low blood glucose levels in a newborn. This method is typically reserved for infants who cannot feed orally due to medical conditions or prematurity. It is an invasive procedure and can be stressful for the newborn.
Choice C reason:
Administering 10 mL of D5W (5% dextrose in water) via IV is a treatment for hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels), not for borderline low levels like 40 mg/dL. This intervention is usually considered when blood glucose levels are significantly lower than the normal range and the infant is symptomatic or unable to tolerate oral feedings.
Choice D reason:
Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours is a passive approach and may not be appropriate for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Immediate action, such as feeding, is preferred to prevent potential hypoglycemia and its associated risks.
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