A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
Cesarean birth.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Hypotension.
Uterine atony.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature ovarian failure affects the ovaries and leads to early menopause, resulting in the loss of the woman's reproductive ability. This condition can cause infertility due to the depletion or dysfunction of eggs in the ovaries, hindering conception.
Choice B rationale:
Renal calculi (kidney stones) do not directly impact fertility. It is a condition unrelated to the reproductive system.
Choice C rationale:
Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation and, while it can be uncomfortable, it does not necessarily affect fertility.
Choice D rationale:
Recurrent urinary tract infections may be a concern for overall health but do not necessarily directly impact fertility unless there are severe complications. They are unrelated to infertility assessment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
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