A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
Cesarean birth.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Hypotension.
Uterine atony.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative client is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, typically during a prior pregnancy or delivery. The client’s immune system produces anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies, attacking the Rh-positive red blood cells of the fetus. This hemolysis releases bilirubin, leading to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Rh incompatibility only occurs when the client is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive. An Rh-positive client will not form antibodies against an Rh-negative fetus, as their immune system recognizes the Rh factor as normal.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is not related to the mechanism of Rh incompatibility. Receiving a transfusion with Rh-negative blood would not cause the mother's immune system to produce anti-Rh antibodies or lead to Rh incompatibility with her newborn.
Choice D rationale:
This choice describes the ABO blood group system, not the Rh factor. ABO incompatibility can occur when a mother with blood type O (producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies) has a newborn with blood type A, B, or AB, leading to hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. However, the question specifically mentions Rh incompatibility, which involves the Rh factor, not the ABO system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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