During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?
Both breasts have many nodules in the upper outer quadrants.
The client states she has bilateral breast tenderness with palpation.
The left breast is slightly larger than the right breast.
An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is palpable in the right breast.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Having many nodules in the upper outer quadrants of the breasts is a common and expected finding in breast tissue and is not necessarily a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
Bilateral breast tenderness with palpation can be a normal finding, especially in young women with hormonal changes. It is not of immediate concern unless it is accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Slight differences in breast size are often normal and not necessarily concerning, especially in young women whose breast development may not have fully stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the breast raises concerns for a potential breast mass or tumor. This finding requires further evaluation and investigation by a healthcare provider to determine its nature and possible malignancy. Early detection of breast abnormalities is crucial for timely management and improved outcomes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Premature ovarian failure affects the ovaries and leads to early menopause, resulting in the loss of the woman's reproductive ability. This condition can cause infertility due to the depletion or dysfunction of eggs in the ovaries, hindering conception.
Choice B rationale:
Renal calculi (kidney stones) do not directly impact fertility. It is a condition unrelated to the reproductive system.
Choice C rationale:
Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation and, while it can be uncomfortable, it does not necessarily affect fertility.
Choice D rationale:
Recurrent urinary tract infections may be a concern for overall health but do not necessarily directly impact fertility unless there are severe complications. They are unrelated to infertility assessment.
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