A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels.
Increased social support systems.
High self-esteem.
Mother of two other children.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Hormonal changes play a significant role in postpartum depression. After childbirth, there is a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels, which can lead to mood fluctuations and depressive symptoms. Understanding this hormonal aspect is crucial for the nurse to address postpartum depression risk factors.
Choice B rationale:
Increased social support systems would be considered a protective factor against postpartum depression rather than a risk factor. Having strong social support can help mitigate the risk of developing postpartum depression.
Choice C rationale:
High self-esteem is not typically a risk factor for postpartum depression. In fact, individuals with higher self-esteem may be more resilient in coping with the challenges of postpartum period.
Choice D rationale:
Being a mother of two other children is not inherently a risk factor for postpartum depression. While having multiple children can be demanding, it does not directly increase the risk of developing postpartum depression. The hormonal changes and individual circumstances play more significant roles.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Nulliparity (never having given birth) is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never had children have a higher risk compared to those who have. This is believed to be associated with the number of ovulatory cycles a woman experiences throughout her lifetime.
Choice B rationale:
History of breastfeeding does not have a direct link to ovarian cancer risk. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of both breast and ovarian cancer due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation.
Choice C rationale:
Previous use of oral contraceptives is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. Women who have used birth control pills have a lower risk compared to those who have never used them. The protective effect is believed to be due to the suppression of ovulation.
Choice D rationale:
History of breast cancer is not a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Although both cancers are related to the reproductive system, they have distinct risk factors and characteristics.
Choice E rationale:
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a potential risk factor for ovarian cancer, especially long-term use. The hormones used in HRT can affect hormone levels and may increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
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