A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels.
Increased social support systems.
High self-esteem.
Mother of two other children.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Hormonal changes play a significant role in postpartum depression. After childbirth, there is a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone levels, which can lead to mood fluctuations and depressive symptoms. Understanding this hormonal aspect is crucial for the nurse to address postpartum depression risk factors.
Choice B rationale:
Increased social support systems would be considered a protective factor against postpartum depression rather than a risk factor. Having strong social support can help mitigate the risk of developing postpartum depression.
Choice C rationale:
High self-esteem is not typically a risk factor for postpartum depression. In fact, individuals with higher self-esteem may be more resilient in coping with the challenges of postpartum period.
Choice D rationale:
Being a mother of two other children is not inherently a risk factor for postpartum depression. While having multiple children can be demanding, it does not directly increase the risk of developing postpartum depression. The hormonal changes and individual circumstances play more significant roles.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
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