A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?
High calcium levels.
Muscle and joint pain.
Heart failure.
Polyphagia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assisting the family in identifying prior coping skills is a valuable nursing intervention, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's feelings of sadness and lack of energy raise concerns about postpartum depression, and the nurse should address potential harm to the newborn first.
Choice B rationale:
This is the priority action by the nurse. The client's symptoms are indicative of postpartum depression, and the nurse must assess if she has considered harming her newborn. This assessment is crucial for the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice C rationale:
Anticipating a prescription for an antidepressant may be appropriate once a proper assessment and diagnosis are made, but it is not the priority action at this stage. Assessing for potential harm to the newborn takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing postpartum and newborn care discharge teaching is essential for the client's well- being. However, it is not the priority action when the client is showing signs of postpartum depression and possible harm to the newborn.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative client is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, typically during a prior pregnancy or delivery. The client’s immune system produces anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies, attacking the Rh-positive red blood cells of the fetus. This hemolysis releases bilirubin, leading to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Rh incompatibility only occurs when the client is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive. An Rh-positive client will not form antibodies against an Rh-negative fetus, as their immune system recognizes the Rh factor as normal.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is not related to the mechanism of Rh incompatibility. Receiving a transfusion with Rh-negative blood would not cause the mother's immune system to produce anti-Rh antibodies or lead to Rh incompatibility with her newborn.
Choice D rationale:
This choice describes the ABO blood group system, not the Rh factor. ABO incompatibility can occur when a mother with blood type O (producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies) has a newborn with blood type A, B, or AB, leading to hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. However, the question specifically mentions Rh incompatibility, which involves the Rh factor, not the ABO system.
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