A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?
High calcium levels.
Muscle and joint pain.
Heart failure.
Polyphagia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
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