A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?

High calcium levels.

Muscle and joint pain.

Heart failure.

Polyphagia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.

Choice B rationale:

Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.

Choice C rationale:

Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.

Choice D rationale:

Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply

Choice A reason:

Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.

Choice B reason:

Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.

Choice C reason:

Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.

Choice D reason:

Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.

A. Nulliparity. B. History of breastfeeding. C. Previous use of oral contraceptives. D. History of breast cancer. E. Hormone replacement therapy.

Correct Answer is ["A","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Nulliparity (never having given birth) is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never had children have a higher risk compared to those who have. This is believed to be associated with the number of ovulatory cycles a woman experiences throughout her lifetime.

Choice B rationale:

History of breastfeeding does not have a direct link to ovarian cancer risk. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of both breast and ovarian cancer due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation.

Choice C rationale:

Previous use of oral contraceptives is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. Women who have used birth control pills have a lower risk compared to those who have never used them. The protective effect is believed to be due to the suppression of ovulation.

Choice D rationale:

History of breast cancer is not a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Although both cancers are related to the reproductive system, they have distinct risk factors and characteristics.

Choice E rationale:

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a potential risk factor for ovarian cancer, especially long-term use. The hormones used in HRT can affect hormone levels and may increase the risk of ovarian cancer.

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A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is providing teaching to a group of women about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","E"]

Explanation

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