A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?
High calcium levels.
Muscle and joint pain.
Heart failure.
Polyphagia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion is not appropriate when the nurse notes an umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal compromise, and administering oxytocin could worsen the situation.
Choice B rationale:
Applying oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is not the priority when an umbilical cord prolapse is detected. The focus should be on relieving pressure on the cord and changing the client's position to alleviate the compression.
Choice C rationale:
Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter is not appropriate when there is an umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate concern is the potential compromise of fetal blood flow, and addressing the cord prolapse takes precedence over any other interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting the client into the knee-chest position is the correct action when an umbilical cord prolapse is observed during a vaginal exam. This position helps to alleviate pressure on the cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus off the cord and can prevent further fetal distress until more definitive interventions can be performed.
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