A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?
Hyporeactivity.
Excessive high-pitched cry.
Acrocyanosis.
Respiratory rate of 50/min.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Hyporeactivity is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and signs of withdrawal, which are opposite to a hypo- reactive state.
Choice B rationale:
An excessive high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Babies exposed to drugs like methadone during pregnancy can experience withdrawal symptoms, including a distinct high-pitched cry.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is not specific to NAS. It is caused by immature peripheral circulation and usually resolves on its own.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. NAS symptoms are related to drug withdrawal and not respiratory issues.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, which are key signs of abruptio placentae. This condition occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before the baby is born, leading to bleeding and potential fetal distress. The history of cocaine use can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, as cocaine use may lead to vasoconstriction and reduced blood flow to the placenta.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is not likely in this case because it presents with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and a "grape-like” mass on ultrasound. The continuous abdominal pain is not typical for a hydatidiform mole.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor is not the likely complication in this scenario because the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Preterm labor refers to labor that occurs before 37 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is not the likely complication as it presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, and the abdominal pain described in the question suggests a different condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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