A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hyporeactivity is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and signs of withdrawal, which are opposite to a hypo- reactive state.
Choice B rationale:
An excessive high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Babies exposed to drugs like methadone during pregnancy can experience withdrawal symptoms, including a distinct high-pitched cry.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is not specific to NAS. It is caused by immature peripheral circulation and usually resolves on its own.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. NAS symptoms are related to drug withdrawal and not respiratory issues.
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