A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”

"This could initiate preterm labor.”

"This could result in profound bleeding.”

"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

Choice C rationale:

The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Restricting protein intake to less than 40 g/day is not appropriate for a client with preeclampsia with severe features. While protein restriction might be advised in some cases of preeclampsia, it is not a priority in severe cases where the focus is on managing potential complications.

Choice B rationale:

Initiating seizure precautions is essential in managing a client with preeclampsia with severe features. Preeclampsia can lead to eclampsia, a condition characterized by seizures. Seizure precautions involve implementing measures to prevent injury during a seizure, such as padding the side rails of the bed, ensuring a clear environment, and having emergency equipment readily available.

Choice C rationale:

Initiating an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 ml/hr is not directly related to managing preeclampsia with severe features. Although intravenous fluids may be necessary in some cases, the priority in this situation is to prevent and manage potential seizures.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the client to ambulate twice per day is not appropriate for a client with preeclampsia with severe features. Bed rest is often recommended in severe cases to reduce stress on the cardiovascular system and decrease the risk of complications.

A. Multiparity. B. Endometriosis. C. Under 40 years of age. D. Use of contraceptive medications.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.

Choice C rationale:

Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.

Choice D rationale:

Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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