A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing potassium intake is not specifically associated with relieving breast discomfort during menstruation. There is no established link between potassium intake and fibrocystic breast changes.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing fluid intake is generally beneficial for overall health, but it is not a specific recommendation for managing breast discomfort during menstruation. It may not have a direct impact on fibrocystic breast changes.
Choice C rationale:
Decreasing sodium intake before menstruation is a relevant instruction for managing breast discomfort associated with fibrocystic breast changes. High sodium intake can lead to water retention and breast swelling, exacerbating discomfort.
Choice D rationale:
Daily fiber intake is important for bowel health but is not directly related to managing breast discomfort during menstruation or fibrocystic breast changes.
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