A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Periodic tingling of fingers is a common symptom during pregnancy and is often related to hormonal changes and increased fluid retention. While it can be uncomfortable, it is not necessarily an indication of a potential prenatal complication.
Choice B rationale:
Absence of clonus is not an abnormal finding during pregnancy. Clonus is a series of involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations and is generally not expected during a routine assessment.
Choice C rationale:
Leg cramps are a common complaint during pregnancy and are usually caused by changes in calcium and magnesium levels. While they can be uncomfortable, they are not typically considered an indication of a potential prenatal complication.
Choice D rationale:
Blurred vision can be an indication of preeclampsia, a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, often affecting the eyes, kidneys, and liver. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this symptom and promptly inform the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply
Choice A reason:
Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.
Choice B reason:
Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.
Choice C reason:
Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.
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