A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assisting the client to a sitz bath is not the priority action in this situation. The client has soaked two perineal pads in the past 30 minutes, indicating excessive bleeding, which requires immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
Assessing the client's uterine tone is essential to determine if the uterus is contracting appropriately. Uterine atony, where the uterus fails to contract after childbirth, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Assessing the tone helps identify this issue and allows for timely interventions.
Choice C rationale:
Encouraging the client to breastfeed may have benefits such as promoting uterine contractions through oxytocin release. However, the priority in this scenario is addressing the potential postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
Applying an ice pack to the client's perineum may provide comfort, but it does not address the concerning symptom of excessive bleeding and potential postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Polyuria is not an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. It is unrelated to this type of pain control.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is not an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. Epidurals can actually cause a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Pruritus, or itching, is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia caused by the release of histamines from local anesthetics.
Choice D rationale:
Dry mouth is not an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with general anesthesia or medications with anticholinergic effects.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.