A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”
"This could initiate preterm labor.”
"This could result in profound bleeding.”
"There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Choice C rationale:
The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) is not a manifestation of hypoglycemia in a newborn. Instead, hypotonia (decreased muscle tone) is more characteristic.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in a newborn. It may be accompanied by other symptoms like poor feeding, tremors, and irritability.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the hands and feet) is a normal finding in newborns and is not specifically associated with hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
Generalized petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin) are not indicative of hypoglycemia but may be associated with other medical conditions.
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