A nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will leave the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse.”
"I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my forefinger.”
"I will place a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week.”
"I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The priority nursing action when the fetal heart rate shows a deceleration after the contraction has started, with the lowest point occurring after the peak of the contraction, is to change the client's position. This deceleration pattern is called "late decelerations,” and it is typically associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be caused by maternal hypotension or impaired blood flow to the placenta. Changing the client's position, such as moving the client to their side or repositioning them, can alleviate pressure on the vena cava and improve blood flow to the placenta, thus potentially resolving or minimizing the late decelerations.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting a scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the priority action in this situation. While a scalp electrode may be used to monitor the fetal heart rate more accurately and continuously, it is not the initial intervention for addressing late decelerations.
Choice C rationale:
Preparing for amnioinfusion (Choice C) may be considered if there are variable decelerations (caused by cord compression) present, but it is not the priority intervention for late decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Documenting benign decelerations (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario since late decelerations are not considered benign and require immediate action.
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