A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?
Abruptio placentae.
Hydatidiform mole.
Preterm labor.
Placenta previa.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:

Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use are indicative of abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae is a medical emergency where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall before delivery, leading to severe bleeding and abdominal pain. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is a gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs due to an abnormal pregnancy. It is not associated with continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Instead, clients with this condition often present with vaginal bleeding and a grape-like cluster of cysts in the uterus.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor involves regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. While preterm labor can cause abdominal discomfort, it is not usually described as continuous abdominal pain. Vaginal bleeding is not a typical symptom of preterm labor.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the opening of the cervix. It can cause painless vaginal bleeding, but it is not usually associated with continuous abdominal pain. Clients with placenta previa often experience sudden, painless bleeding later in pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Having many nodules in the upper outer quadrants of the breasts is a common and expected finding in breast tissue and is not necessarily a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
Bilateral breast tenderness with palpation can be a normal finding, especially in young women with hormonal changes. It is not of immediate concern unless it is accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Slight differences in breast size are often normal and not necessarily concerning, especially in young women whose breast development may not have fully stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the breast raises concerns for a potential breast mass or tumor. This finding requires further evaluation and investigation by a healthcare provider to determine its nature and possible malignancy. Early detection of breast abnormalities is crucial for timely management and improved outcomes.
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