A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?
Fentanyl.
Flumazenil.
Naloxone.
Benztropine.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic and is not used to counteract the effects of meperidine in the newborn. Both fentanyl and meperidine are opioids, and using fentanyl in this context would not counteract the effects of meperidine.
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids like meperidine. It is not appropriate for countering the effects of meperidine in the newborn.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. When a newborn has been exposed to opioids during labor, such as meperidine given to the mother, there is a risk of respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone can quickly reverse this effect and restore normal respiratory function.
Choice D rationale:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat side effects of antipsychotic drugs and is not relevant in this situation. It would not counteract the effects of meperidine on the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, and Para indicates the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (at least 20 weeks) Since the client has
been pregnant for the fourth time and delivered two full-term newborns (reached viability), she is gravida 4, and since she had one spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks of gestation, she is para 2 (two pregnancies reached viability)
Choice B rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had three pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice, as explained above. Choice D rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had four pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:

The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
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