A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B- hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Ampicillin.
Azithromycin.
Ceftriaxone.
Acyclovir.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assisting the client to a sitz bath is not the priority action in this situation. The client has soaked two perineal pads in the past 30 minutes, indicating excessive bleeding, which requires immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
Assessing the client's uterine tone is essential to determine if the uterus is contracting appropriately. Uterine atony, where the uterus fails to contract after childbirth, is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Assessing the tone helps identify this issue and allows for timely interventions.
Choice C rationale:
Encouraging the client to breastfeed may have benefits such as promoting uterine contractions through oxytocin release. However, the priority in this scenario is addressing the potential postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
Applying an ice pack to the client's perineum may provide comfort, but it does not address the concerning symptom of excessive bleeding and potential postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
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