A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B- hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Ampicillin.
Azithromycin.
Ceftriaxone.
Acyclovir.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hyporeactivity is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) NAS is characterized by increased irritability and signs of withdrawal, which are opposite to a hypo- reactive state.
Choice B rationale:
An excessive high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Babies exposed to drugs like methadone during pregnancy can experience withdrawal symptoms, including a distinct high-pitched cry.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the extremities, is a common finding in newborns and is not specific to NAS. It is caused by immature peripheral circulation and usually resolves on its own.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not a sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome. NAS symptoms are related to drug withdrawal and not respiratory issues.
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