A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B- hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Ampicillin.
Azithromycin.
Ceftriaxone.
Acyclovir.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, and Para indicates the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (at least 20 weeks) Since the client has
been pregnant for the fourth time and delivered two full-term newborns (reached viability), she is gravida 4, and since she had one spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks of gestation, she is para 2 (two pregnancies reached viability)
Choice B rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had three pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice, as explained above. Choice D rationale:
This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had four pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Postpartum depression is a more severe and prolonged form of emotional response to childbirth. It involves persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and difficulty bonding with the baby. The symptoms of postpartum depression are different from what the client is experiencing, so this choice is not correct.
Choice B rationale:
The taking-in phase is a normal emotional response to birth, where the mother is focused on her own needs and experiences during the immediate postpartum period. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Choice C rationale:
The postpartum blues, also known as the "baby blues,” is the correct choice. It is a common and transient emotional response to birth experienced by many new mothers. The mother may feel overwhelmed, have mood swings, and cry for no apparent reason. These symptoms usually resolve on their own within a few days to a couple of weeks, and supportive care is typically sufficient.
Choice D rationale:
The taking-hold phase is a phase where the mother becomes more confident in her caregiving abilities and starts to take a more active role in caring for her baby. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
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