A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Request a prescription for PRN aspirin from the provider.
Massage the injection site thoroughly following administration.
Instruct the client that they cannot breastfeed while receiving heparin.
Administer the injection in the client's abdomen.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Requesting a prescription for PRN aspirin is incorrect because aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and should not be combined with heparin without specific medical advice due to the increased risk of bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the tissue and increase the risk of bleeding, which is especially concerning in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis.
Choice C reason:
Instructing the client that they cannot breastfeed while receiving heparin is incorrect. Heparin does not pass into breast milk in significant amounts and is considered safe for use while breastfeeding.
Choice D reason:
Administer the injection in the client's abdomen. Heparin is typically administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to ensure proper absorption and minimize discomfort. Because it is an area with large amounts of subcutaneous fat
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) is not a manifestation of hypoglycemia in a newborn. Instead, hypotonia (decreased muscle tone) is more characteristic.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in a newborn. It may be accompanied by other symptoms like poor feeding, tremors, and irritability.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the hands and feet) is a normal finding in newborns and is not specifically associated with hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
Generalized petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin) are not indicative of hypoglycemia but may be associated with other medical conditions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.
Choice C rationale:
Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.
Choice D rationale:
Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.
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