The nurse is caring for a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Which are expected findings of the disorder? Select all that apply.

Edema.

BP 155/92.

Proteinuria.

Hepatic dysfunction.

BP returns to normal after pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C

Choice A rationale:

Edema is not an expected finding of uncomplicated gestational hypertension. While some degree of edema can be common during pregnancy, it is not specifically related to gestational hypertension.

Choice B rationale:

A blood pressure reading of 155/92 is an expected finding in a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Gestational hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without the presence of proteinuria or other organ dysfunction.

Choice C rationale:

Proteinuria is an expected finding in gestational hypertension. It is an important diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, which is a severe form of gestational hypertension.

Choice D rationale:

Hepatic dysfunction is not an expected finding in uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Hepatic dysfunction would indicate more severe complications such as HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count), which is a medical emergency.

Choice E rationale:

Blood pressure usually returns to normal after pregnancy in women with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. However, it is essential to monitor the client closely postpartum to ensure blood pressure normalization.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

Choice C rationale:

The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

A. High calcium levels. B. Muscle and joint pain. C. Heart failure. D. Polyphagia.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

High calcium levels are not typically associated with the use of anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor. Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of androgens to estrogens, and they do not directly impact calcium levels.

Choice B rationale:

Muscle and joint pain is a common side effect of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These medications can lead to musculoskeletal discomfort, including joint stiffness and pain, which the nurse should inform the client about to ensure she is aware of potential adverse effects.

Choice C rationale:

Heart failure is not a known side effect of anastrozole. The drug's primary concern is its impact on the musculoskeletal system, particularly causing joint and muscle pain.

Choice D rationale:

Polyphagia, which refers to excessive hunger and increased food intake, is not associated with the use of anastrozole. This choice is unrelated to the side effects of the medication and can be ruled out.

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The nurse is caring for a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Which are expected findings of the disorder? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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