A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, "I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.” The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
Postpartum depression.
Taking-in phase.
Postpartum blues.
Taking-hold phase.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Postpartum depression is a more severe and prolonged form of emotional response to childbirth. It involves persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and difficulty bonding with the baby. The symptoms of postpartum depression are different from what the client is experiencing, so this choice is not correct.
Choice B rationale:
The taking-in phase is a normal emotional response to birth, where the mother is focused on her own needs and experiences during the immediate postpartum period. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Choice C rationale:
The postpartum blues, also known as the "baby blues,” is the correct choice. It is a common and transient emotional response to birth experienced by many new mothers. The mother may feel overwhelmed, have mood swings, and cry for no apparent reason. These symptoms usually resolve on their own within a few days to a couple of weeks, and supportive care is typically sufficient.
Choice D rationale:
The taking-hold phase is a phase where the mother becomes more confident in her caregiving abilities and starts to take a more active role in caring for her baby. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion is not appropriate when the nurse notes an umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal compromise, and administering oxytocin could worsen the situation.
Choice B rationale:
Applying oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is not the priority when an umbilical cord prolapse is detected. The focus should be on relieving pressure on the cord and changing the client's position to alleviate the compression.
Choice C rationale:
Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter is not appropriate when there is an umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate concern is the potential compromise of fetal blood flow, and addressing the cord prolapse takes precedence over any other interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting the client into the knee-chest position is the correct action when an umbilical cord prolapse is observed during a vaginal exam. This position helps to alleviate pressure on the cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus off the cord and can prevent further fetal distress until more definitive interventions can be performed.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
The correct answers are C, D, E.
Choice A reason:
Performing a vaginal exam is contraindicated in placenta previa because it can disrupt the placenta and cause significant bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Monitoring fetal heart rate with an internal fetal monitor is not recommended as it involves a vaginal exam, which poses a risk of bleeding in placenta previa cases.
Choice C reason:
Frequently assessing maternal heart rate is important to detect any changes that could indicate maternal hemorrhage or other complications.
Choice D reason:
Initiating bed rest with bathroom privileges is advised to minimize the risk of bleeding and to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
Choice E reason:
Having oxygen equipment available is essential to manage potential fetal distress, which can occur with placenta previa.
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