A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, "I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.” The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
Postpartum depression.
Taking-in phase.
Postpartum blues.
Taking-hold phase.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Postpartum depression is a more severe and prolonged form of emotional response to childbirth. It involves persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and difficulty bonding with the baby. The symptoms of postpartum depression are different from what the client is experiencing, so this choice is not correct.
Choice B rationale:
The taking-in phase is a normal emotional response to birth, where the mother is focused on her own needs and experiences during the immediate postpartum period. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Choice C rationale:
The postpartum blues, also known as the "baby blues,” is the correct choice. It is a common and transient emotional response to birth experienced by many new mothers. The mother may feel overwhelmed, have mood swings, and cry for no apparent reason. These symptoms usually resolve on their own within a few days to a couple of weeks, and supportive care is typically sufficient.
Choice D rationale:
The taking-hold phase is a phase where the mother becomes more confident in her caregiving abilities and starts to take a more active role in caring for her baby. The client's symptoms do not align with this phase, as she is expressing feelings of sadness and crying for no reason.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should ask the client if they are taking over-the-counter medications because ibuprofen is also available over-the-counter. It is important to know if the client is already taking ibuprofen or any other non-prescription pain relievers to avoid potential drug interactions or overdosing.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should inquire about the client's history of gastric problems because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. If the client has a history of gastric ulcers or other gastric issues, the nurse may need to consider an alternative pain relief option.
Choice C rationale:
The question about contraception is not directly related to administering ibuprofen for postpartum cramping. It is essential to provide adequate pain relief, but the method of contraception the client plans to use is not relevant to the administration of the medication.
Choice D rationale:
This question is pertinent because NSAIDs like ibuprofen can cause fluid retention and potentially worsen hypertension.
Choice E rationale:
The presence of cataracts is not relevant to the administration of ibuprofen for postpartum cramping. Cataracts are a concern with eye health and are not associated with taking this pain medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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