A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Requesting a prescription for PRN aspirin is incorrect because aspirin is an antiplatelet agent and should not be combined with heparin without specific medical advice due to the increased risk of bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the tissue and increase the risk of bleeding, which is especially concerning in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis.
Choice C reason:
Instructing the client that they cannot breastfeed while receiving heparin is incorrect. Heparin does not pass into breast milk in significant amounts and is considered safe for use while breastfeeding.
Choice D reason:
Administer the injection in the client's abdomen. Heparin is typically administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to ensure proper absorption and minimize discomfort. Because it is an area with large amounts of subcutaneous fat
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use are indicative of abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae is a medical emergency where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall before delivery, leading to severe bleeding and abdominal pain. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Choice B rationale:
Hydatidiform mole is a gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs due to an abnormal pregnancy. It is not associated with continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Instead, clients with this condition often present with vaginal bleeding and a grape-like cluster of cysts in the uterus.
Choice C rationale:
Preterm labor involves regular uterine contractions and cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. While preterm labor can cause abdominal discomfort, it is not usually described as continuous abdominal pain. Vaginal bleeding is not a typical symptom of preterm labor.
Choice D rationale:
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers the opening of the cervix. It can cause painless vaginal bleeding, but it is not usually associated with continuous abdominal pain. Clients with placenta previa often experience sudden, painless bleeding later in pregnancy.
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