A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR.
Administer a dose of betamethasone.
Check the cervix for dilation every 8 hours.
Request that the provider prescribe misoprostol PRN.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply
Choice A reason:
Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.
Choice B reason:
Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.
Choice C reason:
Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Having many nodules in the upper outer quadrants of the breasts is a common and expected finding in breast tissue and is not necessarily a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
Bilateral breast tenderness with palpation can be a normal finding, especially in young women with hormonal changes. It is not of immediate concern unless it is accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Slight differences in breast size are often normal and not necessarily concerning, especially in young women whose breast development may not have fully stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the breast raises concerns for a potential breast mass or tumor. This finding requires further evaluation and investigation by a healthcare provider to determine its nature and possible malignancy. Early detection of breast abnormalities is crucial for timely management and improved outcomes.
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