A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?
Premature ovarian failure.
Renal calculi.
Dysmenorrhea.
Recurrent urinary tract infections.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Premature ovarian failure affects the ovaries and leads to early menopause, resulting in the loss of the woman's reproductive ability. This condition can cause infertility due to the depletion or dysfunction of eggs in the ovaries, hindering conception.
Choice B rationale:
Renal calculi (kidney stones) do not directly impact fertility. It is a condition unrelated to the reproductive system.
Choice C rationale:
Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation and, while it can be uncomfortable, it does not necessarily affect fertility.
Choice D rationale:
Recurrent urinary tract infections may be a concern for overall health but do not necessarily directly impact fertility unless there are severe complications. They are unrelated to infertility assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
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