A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Digoxin.
Calcium gluconate.
Vitamin Bs.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside and is primarily used in the management of certain heart conditions, such as heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum, which is severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium gluconate is a mineral supplement used to treat calcium deficiencies. It is not a standard treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale:
Vitamin Bs (B6 and B12) are commonly used to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, has been shown to alleviate nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Vitamin B12 may also be administered to help manage symptoms. Both vitamins are safe to use during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, heart conditions, and migraines. It is not recommended for managing hyperemesis gravidarum and is generally avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
Choice C rationale:
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
Choice D rationale:
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
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