Pn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2026
Total Questions : 176
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Parent states child was awake most of the night experiencing pain and is currently asleep. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy, shallow. Breath sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, tender in incisional area upon palpation. Absent bowel sounds. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.
1200:
Child rates abdominal pain as 6 on FACES scale. Alert and irritable. cooperates with coaxing/playing. Child refuses use of incentive spirometer. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy. shallow, Breath sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, more tender upon palpation as compared to 0800. Bowel sounds hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.
1245:
Child rates abdominal pain as 4 on FACES scale.
1600:
Child rates abdominal pain as 3 on FACES scale. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy, shallow. Breath sounds slightly diminished in the bases. Child encouraged to use incentive spirometer, but child continues to decline use of the incentive spirometer. Abdomen with slight tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Bowel sounds hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.
0800:
- Temperature 37° C (98.6° F) temporal
- Heart rate 118/min
- Respiratory rate 20/min
- Blood pressure 92/52 mm Hg
- Weight 13.6 kg (30 lb)
1200:
- Temperature 37.2° C (99° F) temporal
- Heart rate 126/min
- Respiratory rate 22/min
1600:
- Temperature 37.7° C (99.9° F) temporal
- Heart rate 124/min
- Respiratory rate 24/min
- Acetaminophen 120 mg rectally every 4 hr PRN for fever
- Morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 3 hr PRN for pain
1215:
- Morphine sulfate 1 mg IV
A nurse on a pediatric unit is assisting with the care of a preschooler who is 1 day postoperative following an open appendectomy.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of option
The preschooler is at greatest risk for developing
Explanation
Brief introduction:
After abdominal surgery, children are at increased risk for respiratory complications due to pain, shallow breathing, and reluctance to perform deep-breathing exercises such as incentive spirometry. Poor ventilation can lead to atelectasis and progression to pneumonia if secretions are not mobilized effectively. Identifying early respiratory risk factors is essential in preventing postoperative pulmonary complications.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Pneumonia: Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in pediatric clients following abdominal surgery due to hypoventilation and retained secretions. The child demonstrates shallow breathing, diminished breath sounds in the bases, and reluctance to perform deep-breathing exercises, all of which promote alveolar collapse. These factors impair lung expansion and increase the risk of infection and consolidation.
• Breathing effort: The child demonstrates shallow respirations and a gradual decrease in breath sound intensity at the lung bases, indicating ineffective ventilation. Pain from the abdominal incision limits deep inspiration, leading to reduced breathing effort and alveolar hypoventilation. This physiologic pattern significantly increases the risk of atelectasis, which can progress to pneumonia if unresolved.
• Refusal to use incentive spirometer: The child consistently refuses to use the incentive spirometer despite nursing encouragement, which significantly increases the risk of postoperative pulmonary complications. Incentive spirometry is essential for promoting lung expansion, preventing atelectasis, and clearing secretions after abdominal surgery. Without its use, the child is unable to maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. Refusal is a major modifiable risk factor for pneumonia development.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Peritonitis: Peritonitis is typically associated with severe abdominal pain, rigid or board-like abdomen, rebound tenderness, fever, and signs of systemic toxicity such as hypotension and tachycardia out of proportion to pain. In this child, the abdomen is described as soft with only localized incisional tenderness and no signs of rigidity or rebound tenderness. The surgical dressing is dry and intact, and bowel findings are hypoactive but expected postoperatively. These findings do not support intra-abdominal infection or inflammatory spread.
• Sepsis: Sepsis would present with escalating systemic signs such as persistent high fever or hypothermia, worsening tachycardia beyond expected postoperative ranges, hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of organ dysfunction. Although the child has mild temperature elevation and tachycardia, these findings are consistent with postoperative pain and recovery rather than systemic infection. There is no evidence of hemodynamic instability or progressive deterioration.
• Abdominal findings: While the child has expected postoperative abdominal tenderness and hypoactive bowel sounds, these findings are not the primary contributors to the risk of pneumonia in this scenario. The abdominal findings are consistent with normal healing after an appendectomy and do not directly indicate impaired pulmonary function. The key issue driving complication risk is reduced ventilation, not abdominal status.
• Abdominal distention: Although abdominal tenderness is present, there is no evidence of progressive abdominal distention in the assessment findings. The abdomen is described as soft with localized incisional tenderness, which is expected after an appendectomy. Abdominal distention would be more associated with gastrointestinal obstruction or peritonitis rather than respiratory complications.
• Fever: The child’s temperature shows only a mild upward trend from 37°C to 37.7°C, which may be consistent with normal postoperative inflammatory response rather than infection. There are no additional signs of systemic infection such as tachycardia out of proportion to pain, wound infection, or abdominal rigidity. Fever alone is not the most significant indicator compared with impaired ventilation and refusal of respiratory exercises in this scenario.
• Decreased heart rate: The child actually demonstrates a relatively elevated and stable heart rate (118–126/min), which is expected in postoperative pain and stress. There is no evidence of bradycardia or decreased heart rate in the assessment data. Therefore, this does not represent a contributing factor to the child’s current risk condition.
A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is scheduled to undergo an esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to the procedure?
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has chronic low back pain. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
0800:
- Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- Hypertension
0800:
Client reports recent fatigue and lightheadedness when standing. Client states, "I have trouble when I take my blood pressure medication, I feel dizzy all the time. My blood sugars get a little off when I skip a meal because I am not hungry."
0800:
- Temperature 37.2° C (98.96° F)
- Heart rate 62/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- Blood pressure 136/68 mm Hg (supine)
- Blood pressure 114/64 mm Hg (standing, after 3 min)
0800:
- Nonfasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
- HbA1c 8.2% (good diabetic control less than 7.9%)
- Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)
- Potassium 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
0800:
- Potassium chloride 40 mEq PO daily
- Metoprolol 20 mg PO daily
- Metformin 500 mg PO twice daily
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client in the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at greatest risk for developing
Explanation
Brief introduction:
Beta-blockers such as metoprolol act by decreasing heart rate and myocardial contractility, which can lead to bradycardia, especially in clients who already report dizziness and lightheadedness. The nurse must integrate vital signs, medication profile, and symptoms such as orthostatic hypotension to identify the most significant risk. Careful monitoring is essential in clients receiving antihypertensive therapy with borderline low heart rates.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Bradycardia: Bradycardia is the most likely adverse effect because metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker that slows conduction through the sinoatrial (SA) node and atrioventricular (AV) node. The client already has a heart rate of 62/min and reports dizziness and lightheadedness, which are early signs of decreased cardiac output. Beta-blockers can further reduce heart rate, particularly in older or volume-depleted clients. If unmonitored, this may progress to symptomatic hypotension, syncope, or fatigue due to reduced perfusion.
• Metoprolol: Metoprolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension by decreasing heart rate and reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Its pharmacologic action directly increases the risk of bradycardia, especially in clients with baseline borderline low heart rates and orthostatic blood pressure changes. The client’s report of dizziness upon standing and a drop in blood pressure indicates sensitivity to antihypertensive effects. Therefore, metoprolol is the medication most strongly associated with the identified risk.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Hypoglycemia: Although beta-blockers can mask some symptoms of hypoglycemia, metformin does not typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone, and the client’s current blood glucose level is within normal range at 105 mg/dL. Additionally, the symptoms described (dizziness on standing) are more consistent with orthostatic hypotension rather than low blood glucose. There is no evidence of sweating, confusion, tremors, or other hypoglycemic manifestations.
• Paresthesia: Paresthesia is most commonly associated with electrolyte disturbances, particularly hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, or vitamin deficiencies. The client’s potassium level is at the lower limit of normal (3.5 mEq/L) but not critically low enough to explain neurologic symptoms. Metformin is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency over long-term use, but there is no evidence of neurologic deficits in this case. Therefore, paresthesia is not the most immediate or significant risk.
• Potassium: Potassium is an essential electrolyte involved in cardiac conduction, neuromuscular function, and fluid balance, but it is not the medication causing the client’s greatest immediate risk in this scenario. The client’s potassium level is 3.5 mEq/L, which is at the lower limit of normal rather than critically abnormal. While potassium chloride supplementation may be prescribed to prevent hypokalemia, it does not inherently place the client at risk for hypoglycemia, bradycardia, or paresthesia. Therefore, potassium is a supportive therapy rather than the source of the primary adverse effect risk.
• Metformin: Metformin is an oral antihyperglycemic agent that primarily works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity. It is not associated with hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy and does not directly cause bradycardia or paresthesia. The client’s blood glucose and HbA1c levels suggest suboptimal long-term control, but there are no acute adverse effects linked to metformin that match the clinical concern described. Metformin’s major risks involve gastrointestinal upset and, rarely, lactic acidosis.
First office visit:
- Client is 42 years old. Reports bilateral wrist and shoulder stiffness. Reports no history of trauma to upper extremities.
- Past surgical history includes appendectomy and two cesarean births.
- Client takes cholesterol and diuretic medications.
- Family history of hypertension, hypercholesteremia, CVA, stomach cancer.
6-month follow-up:
- Reports bilateral wrist and shoulder stiffness for several hours after waking up in the morning. Reports fatigue and loss of appetite.
First office visit:
- Respiratory rate 20/min
- Blood pressure 124/82 mm Hg
- Oxygen saturation 100% on room air
6-month follow-up:
- Temperature 37.7° C (99.8° F)
- Heart rate 92/min
- Respiratory rate 20/min
- Blood pressure 120/78 mm Hg
- Oxygen saturation 100% on room air
First office visit:
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 21 mm/hr (up to 20 mm/hr)
- Het 36% (37% to 47%)
- Hgb 12 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)
- WBC count 6,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)
- Uric acid 6.1 mg/dL (2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL)
6-month follow-up:
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 22 mm/hr (Up to 20 mm/hr)
- Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) positive
- Hct 35% (37% to 47%)
- Hgb 11 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)
- WBC count 4,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)
- Uric acid 6.3 mg/dL (2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL)
A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient clinic
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at highest risk for developing
Explanation
Brief introduction
This question focuses on identifying a likely autoimmune inflammatory condition based on progressive joint symptoms and supporting diagnostic findings. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic systemic autoimmune disorder that primarily affects synovial joints, leading to stiffness, pain, and functional limitation, especially in the morning. Laboratory markers such as elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) support systemic inflammation. The nurse must correlate clinical progression with inflammatory biomarkers to determine disease risk.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Rheumatoid arthritis: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder characterized by symmetrical joint involvement, morning stiffness lasting several hours, and progressive joint discomfort affecting wrists and shoulders. The client’s worsening symptoms over 6 months, including fatigue, anorexia, low-grade fever, and elevated inflammatory markers, strongly align with RA. Positive ANA and increasing ESR further support an autoimmune inflammatory process. These findings distinguish RA from degenerative or metabolic joint disorders.
• ESR level: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of systemic inflammation and is commonly elevated in autoimmune conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis. The client’s ESR has increased from 21 mm/hr to 22 mm/hr, indicating ongoing inflammatory activity. When combined with clinical symptoms such as morning stiffness and joint involvement, an elevated ESR supports a diagnosis of RA. It reflects disease activity and helps monitor progression over time.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Osteoarthritis: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease caused by cartilage wear and tear rather than autoimmune inflammation. It typically presents with joint pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest, rather than prolonged morning stiffness. Laboratory findings such as ESR and ANA are usually normal in osteoarthritis. The presence of systemic symptoms like fatigue and positive ANA further makes osteoarthritis unlikely in this client.
• Fibromyalgia: Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances without objective inflammatory or autoimmune markers. Unlike this client’s presentation, fibromyalgia does not cause elevated ESR, anemia, or positive ANA and it does not produce joint swelling or progressive inflammatory changes.
• Gout: Gout is a metabolic disorder caused by hyperuricemia leading to deposition of urate crystals in joints, typically presenting as acute, episodic attacks of intense pain, redness, and swelling. The client’s uric acid levels are within normal range and do not indicate gout. Gout also typically affects a single joint, most commonly the first metatarsophalangeal joint, rather than symmetrical involvement of wrists and shoulders. The chronic progressive inflammatory pattern observed is not consistent with gout.
• Family history: While a family history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, CVA, and cancer indicates a general predisposition to cardiovascular and metabolic diseases, it does not specifically serve as evidence for the development of rheumatoid arthritis in this client. Rheumatoid arthritis has a multifactorial etiology involving autoimmune dysregulation rather than a direct inheritance pattern from these listed conditions.
• Diuretic medication: Diuretic medications are not directly associated with the development or diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. While certain diuretics may influence fluid balance or contribute to mild electrolyte disturbances, they do not cause autoimmune joint inflammation or systemic inflammatory marker elevation such as increased ESR or positive ANA.
• Uric acid level: Uric acid levels are primarily used to evaluate metabolic conditions such as gout, not autoimmune disorders like rheumatoid arthritis. In this client, uric acid remains within the normal range and does not indicate crystal deposition or acute inflammatory arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by systemic inflammation, positive ANA, and elevated ESR rather than hyperuricemia.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about bowel sounds. Which of the following characteristics should the nurse use to describe hyperactive bowel sounds?
A nurse is caring for a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride IV solution infusing through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect if the client has an infiltration?
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who will collect stool specimens at home for fecal occult blood testing. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid for 3 days before the test?
A nurse is assisting with discharge planning for a client who is prescribed home oxygen at 1 to 2 L/min. The nurse should ensure that the client has which of the following supplies upon discharge?
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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