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Pn Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Proctored Exam

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Total Questions : 175

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Question 1:

A nurse is assisting with the care of a 17-year-old client who is married and needs to undergo an emergency appendectomy. Which of the following Individuals should the nurse ask to sign the informed consent form?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 2:

A nurse is documenting client care in the nurses' notes and notices that a space was left blank. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 3:

1200:

Client is 32 years old. Reports ending long-term relationship and recent loss of job. Client is withdrawn from family and friends. States, "I am so depressed. My life is a mess."

1400:

Client appears worried and has flat affect and feelings of worthlessness.

2000:

Client is tearful laying in bed and states, "I have so many problems. I wish I weren't here." Client placed in one-on-one observation.

A nurse on a mental health unit is assisting with the care of a client.

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The client is at risk of 

as evidenced by the client’s.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

This question focuses on identifying suicide risk factors in a client experiencing severe depressive symptoms after major life stressors. The client has experienced the loss of a long-term relationship and employment, both of which are significant psychosocial triggers for depression and suicidal thinking. Progressive withdrawal, hopelessness, flat affect, and verbal expressions about not wanting to live are major warning signs requiring immediate intervention. Early recognition of suicidal ideation is critical because emotional distress can rapidly progress to self-harm or suicide attempts without timely support and safety measures.

Rationale for correct choices:

• Suicidal ideation: The client demonstrates multiple classic indicators of suicidal ideation, including hopelessness, social withdrawal, worthlessness, and the statement, “I wish I weren’t here.” Verbalizing a desire not to live is a significant warning sign that must always be taken seriously. The initiation of one-on-one observation further supports concern for self-harm risk and indicates the need for close monitoring and suicide precautions. Clients experiencing major losses are particularly vulnerable to suicidal thoughts during depressive episodes.

• Statements of hopelessness and wishing not to be alive: Hopelessness is one of the strongest psychological predictors of suicide risk because it reflects a belief that circumstances will not improve. The client’s statements reveal despair, emotional exhaustion, and passive death wishes, all of which are concerning for suicidal ideation. Combined with tearfulness, isolation, and feelings of worthlessness, these statements suggest significant emotional instability. Such findings require immediate assessment of suicidal intent, plan, and access to means.

Rationale for incorrect choices:

• Acute stress disorder: Acute stress disorder occurs after exposure to a traumatic event involving actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence. Symptoms typically include dissociation, intrusive memories, hypervigilance, and avoidance behaviors shortly after the trauma. Although this client is under emotional stress, the presentation is more consistent with depressive symptoms and suicide risk rather than trauma-related stress pathology. No evidence of dissociative or trauma-reexperiencing symptoms is present.

• Borderline personality disorder: This is characterized by chronic interpersonal instability, impulsivity, fear of abandonment, unstable self-image, and recurrent self-destructive behaviors beginning in early adulthood. The scenario does not describe a long-standing maladaptive personality pattern or impulsive relationship instability. Instead, the symptoms appear linked to recent situational losses and depressive reactions.

• Recent increase in appetite and energy level: An increase in appetite and energy level is not documented in this scenario and would not directly support suicide risk in the way hopeless verbalizations do. In some depressed clients, sudden increased energy after severe depression can raise concern for suicide because the individual may gain energy to act on suicidal thoughts. However, this client instead demonstrates lethargy, withdrawal, tearfulness, and hopelessness.

• Participation in group activities with peers: Participation in group activities generally suggests social engagement and willingness to interact with others, which are protective rather than high-risk behaviors. The client in this scenario is withdrawn from family and friends and remains isolated in bed. Social isolation commonly worsens depression and increases suicide risk by reducing emotional support systems. Therefore, active peer participation would not support the identified concern.


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Question 4:

2 weeks ago:

Client report "I'm here for my follow-up visit."

History or present illness: 69-year-old client presents to the outpatient primary care provider's office for a routine follow-up visit. The client's only concern today is blood pressure control. Client states they have been monitoring blood pressure at home and it has been running around 170 systolic.

Past medical history chronic kidney disease stage 3, hypertension, osteoarthritis

Social history: Client drinks two to three glasses of red wine every evening. Denies tobacco use or illicit drug use.

Current medications: Lisinopril 40 mg PO daily, acetaminophen 650 mg PO PRN pain

Physical Exam:

General: client with a BMI of 31 in no acute distress

Cardiovascular: S1 S2 no murmur, gallop, or rub

Respiratory bilateral breath sounds clear

Gl: nontender

Extremities: trace bilateral edema

Today:

CC: "I'm here for a follow-up on my blood pressure. And my toe hurts."

HPI: Client reports blood pressure control has improved since the visit 2 weeks ago. However, the client notes that their right great toe has been hurting for a few days. Client rates the pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10 and says, "It hurts so bad I can't even sleep with a sheet on top." Client states, "I don't think I bumped it." Current medications: Lisinopril 40 mg PO daily, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily, acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 4 hr PRN pain

Physical Exam:

General: client with a BMI of 31 in no acute distress

Cardiovascular: S1 S2 no murmur, gallop or rub

Respiratory: bilateral breath sounds clear

Gl: nontender

Extremities: no edema. Right great toe red, warm, and tender to the touch.

2 weeks ago:

Blood pressure 169/97 mm Hg

Heart rate 84/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Weight 122.3 kg (269 lb)

Height 180 cm (71 in)

BMI 37.5

Today.

Blood pressure 135/77 mm Hg

Heart rate 84/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Weight 122.3 kg (269 lb)

Height 180 cm (71 in)

BMI 37.5 kg/m2

2 weeks ago:

Continue lisinopril 40 mg daily.

Start hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily.

Continue daily blood pressure monitoring.

Return in 2 weeks for follow-up.

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client in an outpatient primary care provider's office.

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

This clinical scenario discusses the recognition and management of acute gout in a client with multiple predisposing risk factors. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis caused by deposition of monosodium urate crystals within joints, most commonly affecting the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. The client presents with classic manifestations including sudden severe toe pain, redness, warmth, and extreme tenderness. Recent initiation of hydrochlorothiazide, chronic kidney disease, obesity, and regular alcohol intake all increase uric acid retention and significantly raise the risk of acute gout attacks.

Rationale for correct choices:

• Gout: The client’s presentation strongly supports acute gouty arthritis. The abrupt onset of severe pain in the right great toe with redness, warmth, and hypersensitivity to even light touch is classic for podagra, the most common form of gout. Hydrochlorothiazide contributes to hyperuricemia by decreasing renal uric acid excretion, while chronic kidney disease further impairs urate clearance. Alcohol intake, obesity, and hypertension are additional major risk factors supporting this diagnosis.

• Recommend a low purine diet: Dietary modification is an important part of gout management because purines are metabolized into uric acid. Foods such as red meat, seafood, and alcohol, especially beer and wine, can precipitate acute attacks by increasing uric acid levels. Teaching the client to reduce purine intake helps decrease crystal deposition and recurrence frequency. Increased hydration is also encouraged to support renal excretion of uric acid.

• Anticipate a prescription for colchicine: Colchicine is commonly prescribed for acute gout flares because it reduces the inflammatory response caused by urate crystal deposition. It works by inhibiting neutrophil activity within the affected joint, thereby decreasing pain, swelling, and inflammation. Early treatment is most effective in shortening attack duration and improving comfort. Colchicine is particularly useful when NSAIDs are not ideal, such as in clients with chronic kidney disease.

• Pain level: Pain level is an important parameter to monitor because acute gout attacks are extremely painful and pain severity reflects the degree of inflammation. Monitoring pain helps evaluate response to medications such as colchicine and guides further treatment decisions. Improvement in pain indicates reduction of crystal-induced joint inflammation. Persistent or worsening pain may suggest ineffective therapy or alternative diagnoses requiring reassessment.

• Uric acid level: Monitoring uric acid levels helps assess long-term control of hyperuricemia and effectiveness of preventive interventions. Elevated serum uric acid contributes to recurrent gout attacks and chronic joint damage if untreated. Although uric acid may occasionally appear normal during an acute flare, trending levels over time is clinically valuable. Monitoring is especially important in clients with kidney disease and diuretic use because both impair uric acid elimination.

Rationale for incorrect choices:

• Refer the client for a foot x-ray: A foot x-ray is not the priority because there is no history of trauma or evidence suggesting fracture. Acute gout is primarily diagnosed clinically based on symptoms and risk factors, particularly involvement of the great toe with intense inflammation. Imaging may be considered later if chronic joint damage is suspected, but it is not the immediate intervention for this presentation. The client’s findings are more consistent with inflammatory crystal arthritis.

• Request a prescription for antibiotics: Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are not indicated for uncomplicated gout. Although the toe is red and warm, these inflammatory findings result from urate crystal deposition rather than infection. The client has no fever, systemic infection signs, or evidence of septic arthritis. Unnecessary antibiotic use could expose the client to adverse effects without treating the underlying condition.

• Anticipate a prescription for methotrexate: Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug primarily used for autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis. It does not treat acute gout attacks or reduce uric acid crystal inflammation. The client’s symptoms are episodic and localized rather than chronic symmetric inflammatory arthritis. Therefore, methotrexate would not be an appropriate first-line therapy in this scenario.

• Fracture: A fracture usually follows trauma and often presents with deformity, impaired mobility, bruising, or swelling related to injury. The client specifically denies bumping or injuring the toe, making fracture less likely. The hypersensitivity to even a bedsheet touching the toe is highly characteristic of gout rather than bone injury. Additionally, the recent hydrochlorothiazide initiation strongly supports a metabolic cause.

• Shingles: Shingles typically presents with a painful unilateral vesicular rash following a dermatomal distribution caused by reactivation of varicella-zoster virus. The client has no rash, blistering, or neuropathic burning pain pattern associated with shingles. The isolated inflammation of the great toe is inconsistent with viral nerve involvement. Therefore, shingles does not fit the assessment findings.

• Septic arthritis: Septic arthritis is a serious joint infection that usually presents with fever, severe joint pain, swelling, and systemic illness. Although the toe is inflamed, the client does not have fever, chills, or toxic appearance suggestive of infection. The timing after hydrochlorothiazide initiation and classic podagra presentation favor gout instead. Septic arthritis remains important to rule out if symptoms worsen or systemic findings develop.

• Rash: Rash monitoring would be more relevant for conditions such as shingles or allergic reactions, not gout. Gout primarily causes localized inflammatory joint manifestations rather than cutaneous eruptions. The client’s toe redness is due to inflammation beneath the skin rather than a dermatologic rash. Rash monitoring would not best evaluate progression or treatment response.

• CBC: A complete blood count may be useful if infection is suspected, but it is not the primary parameter for monitoring uncomplicated gout management. The priority is assessing symptom relief and uric acid control rather than infection markers. Since the client lacks systemic signs of infection, serial CBC monitoring is less clinically relevant. Pain assessment and uric acid levels provide more direct evaluation of gout progression.

• Temperature: Monitoring temperature is more important when infection or systemic inflammatory response is suspected. The client does not currently exhibit fever or signs of septic arthritis. While temperature may still be assessed routinely, it is not the most specific indicator of gout improvement. Pain reduction and uric acid management are more useful measures of therapeutic response.


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Question 5:

0900:

A 16-year-old client reports to the clinic with their friend. The client's friend informs the nurse that the client has not been themselves lately. Their parents and a sibling died due to injuries sustained when a tornado moved through their town 1 month ago. The client was the only survivor in their family and witnessed the death of their parents and sibling.

0910:

Client appears anxious but answers questions appropriately for age. They report experiencing nightmares that awaken them at night and startle easily during thunderstorms, but the client states that they have always been afraid of thunderstorms. Client states they have been smoking marijuana for about 1 month because it helps clear their mind. Client also states they have no desire to leave the house. Client states they do attend school regularly and are on the honor roll.

0915:

  • Temperature 36.7° C (98°F)
  • Blood pressure 122/80 mm Hg
  • Respiratory rate 20/min
  • Heart rate 99/min

A nurse is assisting with the care of client in a clinic.

Based on the information in the client's medical record, which of the following findings require immediate follow-up?

Select the 4 findings that require immediate follow-up by the nurse.

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 6:

1400:

Client returns to medical surgical unit from the PACU following an abdominal hysterectomy. Client resting quietly. Denies pain.

Physical Exam:

General: resting quietly, no acute distress

Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat (HEENT): oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation.

Cardiovascular: S1, S2, no murmur, gallop, or rub, bradycardia

Respiratory: bilateral breath sounds clear

Neurologic: drowsy, oriented x3

1600:

The nurse is called to the client's room. The client states, "I'm hurting really badly, can you give me something for pain?" Client reports pain as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10.

1400:

  • Temperature 36.9° C (98.4° F)
  • Heart rate 59/min
  • Respiratory rate 16/min
  • Blood pressure 118/79 mm Hg

1630:

  • Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)
  • Heart rate 58/min
  • Respiratory rate 10/min
  • Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg

1600:

Morphine 8 mg IV now

A nurse is caring for a client on the medical surgical unit.

Click to highlight the findings at 1630 that require immediate follow-up To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.

Body System

Findings

Cardiovascular

S1,S2, no murmur, bradycardia

Respiratory

decreased respiratory effort, equal chest expansion, bilateral crackles

Neurologic

somnolent

Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, and Throat (HEENT)

oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist pinpoint pupils

Vital Signs

Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)

Heart rate 58/min

Respiratory rate 10/min

Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

This question focuses on identifying manifestations of opioid-induced respiratory depression following IV morphine administration. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that depresses the central nervous system and can suppress the respiratory drive, especially in postoperative clients who are already sedated from anesthesia. Findings such as somnolence, pinpoint pupils, bradypnea, hypotension, and decreased respiratory effort are classic indicators of opioid toxicity. Early recognition is critical because progressive respiratory depression can rapidly lead to hypoxia, respiratory arrest, and cardiovascular collapse.

Rationale for Correct findings:

• Decreased respiratory effort, bilateral crackles: Decreased respiratory effort following morphine administration is a serious sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Opioids suppress the medullary respiratory center, leading to slower and shallower breathing that reduces oxygen exchange. Bilateral crackles may indicate retained secretions, atelectasis, or developing pulmonary complications due to hypoventilation. This finding requires immediate nursing intervention, including respiratory assessment, oxygen support, and possible naloxone administration.

• Somnolent: Excessive somnolence is an early neurologic indicator of opioid oversedation and can precede respiratory arrest. A client who becomes increasingly difficult to arouse may not maintain adequate airway protection or respiratory effort. Monitoring the level of consciousness is essential because declining neurologic responsiveness correlates closely with worsening respiratory depression. Immediate reassessment and provider notification are warranted.

• Pinpoint pupils: Pinpoint pupils, or miosis, are a classic manifestation of opioid effects on the central nervous system. In the postoperative setting, this finding strongly suggests excessive opioid activity, particularly when accompanied by sedation and bradypnea. Although miosis alone may not be dangerous, it becomes clinically significant when occurring alongside respiratory depression. This finding helps confirm suspected opioid toxicity and requires prompt evaluation.

• Respiratory rate 10/min: A respiratory rate of 10/min is abnormally low and indicates bradypnea, which is a major concern after opioid administration. Respiratory depression is one of the most dangerous adverse effects of morphine because inadequate ventilation can lead to carbon dioxide retention and hypoxemia. A declining respiratory rate often precedes respiratory arrest if untreated. Immediate assessment and intervention are necessary to prevent deterioration.

• Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg: Hypotension can occur with morphine because opioids cause peripheral vasodilation and reduce sympathetic nervous system activity. The client’s blood pressure has dropped significantly from baseline, suggesting a clinically important hemodynamic effect. Combined with sedation and respiratory depression, hypotension may indicate worsening opioid toxicity. Reduced perfusion can compromise oxygen delivery to vital organs and requires urgent monitoring and management.

Rationale for incorrect findings:

• S1, S2, no murmur, bradycardia: A heart rate of 58/min represents mild bradycardia, which can occur postoperatively or secondary to opioid administration. While it should continue to be monitored, it is less immediately dangerous than respiratory depression or altered consciousness. The absence of murmurs or abnormal heart sounds suggests no acute structural cardiac complication.

• Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F): A temperature of 37.4°C is within a mild postoperative range and does not indicate acute infection or severe systemic complication. Slight elevations in temperature can occur after surgery because of inflammation or stress response. Compared with the client’s respiratory and neurologic changes, this finding is not immediately life-threatening. Ongoing monitoring is appropriate, but urgent intervention is not required based on temperature alone.

• Heart rate 58/min: Although slightly below normal, a heart rate of 58/min is not as critical as the client’s low respiratory rate and decreased responsiveness. Mild bradycardia may occur due to opioid effects, vagal stimulation, or postoperative relaxation. Since perfusion is still being maintained and no dysrhythmias are described, it is a secondary concern at this time. Airway and breathing abnormalities take priority over circulation in this scenario.


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Question 7:

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client on a postpartum unit. The client had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 24 hours ago. Which of the following data collection findings should the nurse report to the primary RN immediately?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 8:

A nurse is verifying informed consent for a client who is preoperative for a vaginal hysterectomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has given informed consent?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 9:

A nurse is providing postmortem care to a client who just died. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 10:

A nurse is discussing risk factors for child maltreatment with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following examples should the nurse include?

Answer and Explanation

A
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