Review Pathophysiology

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Pathophysiology

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Total Questions : 48

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Question 1:

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor?

A. Dehydration B. Congenital metabolic disorder C. Gender D. Family history

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Modifiable risk factors are the lifestyle and behaviors that can reduce or increase a person’s chances of developing a disease. For example, dehydration is a modifiable risk factor as it can be controlled by maintaining proper hydration.

Choice B:

Congenital metabolic disorders are inherited and cannot be changed. They are present from birth and are caused by genetic mutations.

Choice C:

Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor as it is determined biologically and cannot be changed.

Choice D:

Family history is a non-modifiable risk factor. It refers to the health history of immediate family members, which can influence an individual’s risk of developing certain diseases. It cannot be changed.

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Question 2:

In which of the following areas of the body would a pyelonephritis infection be located?

A. Urethra B. Bladder C. Ureters D. Kidneys

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. It is not typically the location of a pyelonephritis infection.

Choice B:

The bladder is part of the lower urinary tract and is typically not the location of a pyelonephritis infection.

Choice C:

The ureters are tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder. While they can be affected by urinary tract infections, they are not typically the primary location of a pyelonephritis infection.

Choice D:

Pyelonephritis is an infection that occurs in the kidneys. It typically starts in the lower urinary tract, such as the bladder, and then spreads to one or both kidneys.

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Question 3:

What are the characteristics of the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis?

A. Fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance B. Fever and diminishing cognition C. Magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine D. Sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

Choice B:

Fever and diminishing cognition are not typically characteristics of the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis.

Choice C:

Magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine is not typically a characteristic of the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis.

Choice D:

Sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine are not typically characteristics of the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis.

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Question 4:

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

A. Insomnia B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Weight loss D. Normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While insomnia can be a symptom of many conditions, it is not typically a clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease (CKD).

Choice B:

Electrolyte imbalance is a common clinical manifestation of CKD. This is because the kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining electrolyte balance in the body, and this function can be impaired in CKD910111213.

Choice C:

Weight loss can occur in CKD, but it is not one of the most common clinical manifestations3.

Choice D:

A normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is not a clinical manifestation of CKD. In fact, a decreased GFR is one of the key indicators of CKD.

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Question 5:

The client presents with dull, achy flank pain, and a palpable mass in the costovertebral angle.
Based on these symptoms, the nurse suspects which of the following conditions?

A. Urinary tract infection (UTI) B. Gout C. Renal calculi D. Renal cell carcinoma

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While a urinary tract infection (UTI) can cause discomfort and pain, it typically does not cause a palpable mass in the costovertebral angle.

Choice B:

Gout is a form of arthritis that causes severe pain and swelling in the joints, not typically in the costovertebral angle.

Choice C:

Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause severe pain, but they do not typically cause a palpable mass in the costovertebral angle.

Choice D:

Renal cell carcinoma, a type of kidney cancer, can cause a palpable mass in the costovertebral angle. This is because the tumor can grow large enough to be felt through the skin.

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Question 6:

A client presents to the emergency department and is diagnosed with nephrolithiasis.
Which clinical manifestation indicates infection may also be present?

A. Blood tinged urine B. Colicky flank pain C. Chills D. Nausea

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While blood-tinged urine can be a symptom of nephrolithiasis, it does not necessarily indicate the presence of an infection.

Choice B:

Colicky flank pain is a common symptom of nephrolithiasis, but it does not necessarily indicate the presence of an infection.

Choice C:

Chills are often a sign of an infection. If a patient with nephrolithiasis is experiencing chills, it could indicate that an infection is also present.

Choice D:

While nausea can be a symptom of nephrolithiasis, it does not necessarily indicate the presence of an infection.

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Question 7:

Which of the following is a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)?

A. Diarrhea B. Heartburn C. Cough D. Esophageal cancer

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While diarrhea can be a symptom of many conditions, it is not typically a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD).

Choice B:

Heartburn is a common symptom of GERD, but it is not typically considered a serious potential complication.

Choice C:

While a cough can be a symptom of GERD, it is not typically considered a serious potential complication.

Choice D:

Esophageal cancer is a serious potential complication of GERD. Long-term exposure to stomach acid can cause changes in the cells lining the esophagus, increasing the risk of esophageal cancer.

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Question 8:

Which of the following are typical signs of Graves’ disease?

A. Facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy B. Exophthalmos and tachycardia C. Delayed physical and intellectual development D. Goiter and decreased basal metabolic rate (MBR) .

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy can be symptoms of many conditions, they are not typically signs of Graves’ disease.

Choice B:

Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate) are typical signs of Graves’ disease.

Choice C:

Delayed physical and intellectual development is not typically a sign of Graves’ disease.

Choice D:

While a goiter (enlarged thyroid gland) is a common sign of Graves’ disease, a decreased basal metabolic rate (MBR) is not typically associated with this condition.

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Question 9:

The client reports experiencing episodes of palpitations with a high heart rate, restlessness, weight loss, amenorrhea, and an intolerance to heat.
She also presents with eyes that appear to be bulging.
The nurse suspects that the provider may test for which of the following conditions?

A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client's symptoms, such as palpitations, high heart rate, restlessness, weight loss, amenorrhea, intolerance to heat, and bulging eyes, are consistent with hyperthyroidism. This condition occurs when the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones (Healthline, 2022).

Choice B:

Hypothyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, and dry skin. This condition is characterized by an underactive thyroid gland (Healthline, 2022).

Choice C:

Hypoparathyroidism results from low parathyroid hormone levels, leading to symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and tetany. It does not involve the thyroid gland (nih.gov, n.d.).

Choice D:

Hyperparathyroidism is caused by overactive parathyroid glands, resulting in high calcium levels in the blood. Symptoms include kidney stones, bone pain, and fatigue (Healthline, 2022).

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Question 10:

A client is experiencing excessive thirst, increased urination, weight loss, and fatigue.
What conditions does the nurse suspect?

A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypoglycemia C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing syndrome

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Hyperthyroidism, although it can cause weight loss, typically presents with additional symptoms such as increased heart rate, heat intolerance, and tremor (Studocu, n.d.).

Choice B:

Hypoglycemia typically leads to symptoms like sweating, hunger, and shakiness, often occurring in diabetic patients who take too much insulin or miss a meal (nih.gov, n.d.).

Choice C:

Excessive thirst, increased urination, weight loss, and fatigue are all classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by high blood sugar levels due to insulin deficiency or resistance (nih.gov, n.d.).

Choice D:

Cushing syndrome, resulting from excessive cortisol production, presents with symptoms like weight gain, thinning skin, easy bruising, and muscle weakness (nih.gov, n.d.).

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Total Questions : 48

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Pathophysiology

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