Review NP125 Med surg exam (Samuel merit university)

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NP125 Med surg exam (Samuel merit university)

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Total Questions : 42

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Question 1:

Many fractures are caused by traumatic injuries, but some fractures are caused by disease processes.

A. True. B. False.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Fractures caused by disease processes are termed pathological fractures. Diseases like osteoporosis weaken bones, increasing susceptibility to fractures. Conditions like cancer can invade bone tissue, causing structural fragility. Pathological fractures occur without significant trauma, distinguishing them from those caused by external injuries, which require high-impact forces to break otherwise healthy bones. By definition, trauma fractures arise from external forces, while pathological ones involve internal conditions compromising bone integrity.

Choice B:

Traumatic fractures stem from external forces, not from disease processes. This assertion neglects the reality of pathological fractures, which result from diseases undermining the bone's natural strength. Healthy bones typically endure significant stress before fracturing, and the absence of disease makes fractures from minimal trauma highly unlikely. This reasoning excludes pathological fractures caused by internal illnesses or conditions weakening bone structures.

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Question 2:

Which risk factor is the most likely cause of a patient's peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A. Alcohol. B. Helicobacter pylori. C. Smoking. D. Stress.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While alcohol is a known irritant to the gastric lining, it is not the primary cause of peptic ulcer disease. Excessive alcohol consumption contributes to mucosal damage but lacks the direct causative action of Helicobacter pylori, which colonizes the stomach lining and interferes with protective mechanisms, leading to ulcer formation. Alcohol merely exacerbates existing risk factors rather than initiating disease.

Choice B:

Helicobacter pylori is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease globally. Its mechanism involves producing urease, neutralizing stomach acid and enabling bacterial survival. It induces inflammation and mucosal damage, compromising the stomach's protective lining. Persistent infection leads to ulcer formation. This bacterial colonization is implicated in up to 90% of duodenal ulcers, making it the key pathogenic factor in PUD.

Choice C:

Smoking is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease but functions more as an aggravating agent than the primary cause. Tobacco use increases gastric acid secretion and decreases bicarbonate production, weakening mucosal defenses. It also reduces the efficacy of Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, prolonging ulcer disease. However, it does not directly induce the condition independently, highlighting its secondary role in PUD pathology.

Choice D:

Stress is associated with peptic ulcer disease but is not a primary causative factor. Psychological stress can lead to hypersecretion of gastric acid, aggravating mucosal vulnerability in susceptible individuals. However, its role is predominantly indirect, amplifying existing risk factors like Helicobacter pylori infection. Stress-induced ulcers are typically seen in critical illnesses or severe physiological stress conditions, differing from PUD pathogenesis.

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Question 3:

Appendicitis is the most common reason for emergency abdominal surgery.

A. True. B. False.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Appendicitis is the leading cause of emergency abdominal surgeries, accounting for a significant percentage globally. It results from inflammation of the appendix, often due to obstruction by fecalith or lymphoid hyperplasia. This condition progresses to localized infection, abscess formation, and potential rupture, requiring urgent surgical intervention to prevent life-threatening complications.

Choice B:

The assertion that appendicitis is not the most common reason for emergency abdominal surgery contradicts epidemiological data. Diseases like cholecystitis or bowel obstructions occur less frequently and often have alternate non-surgical management options. Appendicitis’s acute presentation and high risk of complications necessitate surgery, maintaining its predominance in emergency settings.

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Question 4:

What is a likely finding in the nurse's assessment of a patient who has a large bowel obstruction?

A. Referred back pain. B. Abdominal distention. C. Projectile vomiting. D. Metabolic alkalosis.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Referred back pain is not a hallmark of large bowel obstruction. It typically occurs in conditions with retroperitoneal organ involvement, such as renal or pancreatic pathology. Large bowel obstruction presents primarily with abdominal distention and pain localized to the affected bowel segment due to obstruction-induced pressure and stretching.

Choice B:

Abdominal distention is a classic sign of large bowel obstruction. Accumulated gas and stool proximal to the obstruction result in bloating and visible distention. This presentation reflects impaired bowel motility, pressure build-up, and reduced passage of contents, commonly seen in large bowel pathology.

Choice C:

Projectile vomiting is more indicative of upper GI obstruction, such as pyloric stenosis, due to immediate pressure effects. Large bowel obstructions manifest with late vomiting as distal obstruction delays content passage. Vomiting in this case is less forceful and often accompanied by fecal material.

Choice D:

Metabolic alkalosis is more associated with vomiting-related losses of gastric acid, as seen in upper GI pathology. Large bowel obstruction typically leads to metabolic acidosis from ischemia or bacterial overgrowth, not alkalosis, as the obstruction hampers normal bowel function and circulation.

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Question 5:

The MD schedules an ultrasonic lithotripsy.
Choose the correct description of this procedure.

A. An incision into the renal pelvis for stone removal. B. An incision into the kidney to remove a stone. C. A procedure used to break up stones, thus allowing them to pass from the urinary tract. D. A minimally invasive technique using laser technology to fragment stones.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Incisions into the renal pelvis for stone removal describe open surgical methods, not ultrasonic lithotripsy. This invasive approach is reserved for cases where less invasive techniques fail or stones are inaccessible through standard methods. Lithotripsy avoids direct incisions, utilizing external energy for stone fragmentation.

Choice B:

Kidney incisions for stone removal align with nephrolithotomy procedures rather than ultrasonic lithotripsy. This alternative represents open surgical intervention, distinct from non-invasive lithotripsy technologies. Lithotripsy eliminates stones using sound waves or lasers, reducing surgical risks and recovery times.

Choice C:

Ultrasonic lithotripsy employs high-frequency sound waves to break stones into small fragments. This minimally invasive method allows natural passage through the urinary tract or facilitates removal via catheterization. It reduces complications compared to invasive surgeries and is highly effective for calculi management.

Choice D:

Laser fragmentation techniques differ from ultrasonic lithotripsy, involving concentrated light energy to break stones. While both are minimally invasive, ultrasonic methods utilize sound waves rather than light energy for disintegration. This technical distinction outlines lithotripsy's use of external sound waves for stone management.

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Question 6:

A patient with diabetes is starting on insulin therapy.
Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?

A. Lispro (Humalog). B. Glargine (Lantus). C. Detemir (Levemir). D. NPH (Humulin N).

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin analog designed for mealtime glucose control. It begins action within 15 minutes, peaks in 1 hour, and lasts 2 to 4 hours. Its quick onset matches postprandial glucose spikes, enhancing glycemic control during meals and preventing hyperglycemia from carbohydrate intake.

Choice B:

Glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin with no peak and prolonged action. It does not target mealtime spikes but provides steady glucose control over 24 hours. Its slow onset and constant release profile are unsuitable for immediate postprandial glucose management.

Choice C:

Detemir (Levemir) is a long-acting basal insulin, similar to glargine, with extended action for baseline glucose control. It lacks the rapid onset needed for mealtime management, making it inappropriate for postprandial hyperglycemia control, as observed in Lispro efficacy.

Choice D:

NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin with delayed onset and peak activity. It supports baseline glucose regulation but fails to address mealtime glucose control promptly. Its time profile does not align with the immediate needs of postprandial hyperglycemia management.

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Question 7:

If both Insulin glargine (Lantus) and insulin lispro (Humalog) are due simultaneously, the nurse can mix the two insulins in the same syringe and administer them as one injection.

A. True. B. False.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Mixing insulin glargine and lispro in the same syringe is contraindicated due to their incompatible chemical formulations. Glargine’s acidic pH alters lispro’s effectiveness when mixed, impairing glycemic control. Separate administration preserves their individual pharmacokinetics and therapeutic actions.

Choice B:

Separate injections ensure each insulin maintains its unique action profile. Glargine provides basal control, while lispro manages rapid postprandial spikes. Their chemical incompatibility mandates separate administration, optimizing glycemic management and reducing potential adverse effects from mixed formulations.

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Question 8:

The physician orders strict I & O for a critically ill patient with CHF on a furosemide drip.
The RN knows that it would be appropriate to ask the physician for an order to place a Foley catheter for this patient.

A. True. B. False.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Strict monitoring of intake and output in CHF patients with furosemide therapy prevents fluid overload and underhydration. Foley catheter placement accurately quantifies urine output, crucial in critically ill patients with diuretic-induced fluid shifts. This ensures precise fluid balance adjustments, improving patient outcomes.

Choice B:

Omitting Foley catheter placement in CHF patients risks inaccurate fluid balance monitoring. Furosemide causes frequent, unpredictable urination, complicating intake-output tracking without direct measurement. This approach undermines effective management of diuretic therapy and fluid overload prevention in critical settings. .

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Question 9:

Metformin works by:

A. Increasing the cells' sensitivity to insulin. B. Stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. C. Stimulating glucose uptake in the skeletal muscles. D. Increasing hepatic glucose production.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Metformin primarily increases peripheral insulin sensitivity, particularly in muscle and adipose tissues, facilitating glucose uptake and utilization. It inhibits hepatic glucose production through AMPK activation, reducing gluconeogenesis. Metformin also improves lipid profiles and insulin resistance without promoting insulin secretion, which minimizes the risk of hypoglycemia. Its actions target metabolic pathways, enhancing cellular glucose management for type 2 diabetes control.

Choice B:

Metformin does not stimulate pancreatic insulin release. It acts independently of insulin production mechanisms, focusing on improving peripheral sensitivity and reducing hepatic glucose output. Drugs like sulfonylureas target beta cells for insulin release, unlike metformin, which avoids direct engagement with the pancreas, minimizing hypoglycemia risks associated with excessive insulin secretion.

Choice C:

Stimulating glucose uptake in skeletal muscles is a partial outcome of improved insulin sensitivity induced by metformin. However, metformin’s mechanism extends beyond this, involving significant hepatic effects. It does not directly stimulate glucose uptake as a sole action; rather, it enhances overall metabolic efficiency and glucose management through multiple pathways.

Choice D:

Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production rather than increasing it. It inhibits gluconeogenesis by activating AMPK, suppressing the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. This inhibition aids in reducing fasting glucose levels, which are often elevated in type 2 diabetes. The opposite action described contradicts its therapeutic role in managing hyperglycemia effectively.

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Question 10:

What is a common drug therapy option for managing osteoarthritis (O

A. Biologic Response Modifiers (Biologics, Immunotherapy). B. Opiates. C. Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDS). D. Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs).

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Biologic response modifiers are primarily used for autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis due to their ability to target specific components of the immune system. They are not standard for osteoarthritis, as OA is a degenerative joint disease without a significant autoimmune component. These treatments do not address the inflammation or pain related to OA effectively.

Choice B:

Opiates are used for severe, short-term pain management but carry risks such as addiction and tolerance. They do not address the underlying inflammation in osteoarthritis. Long-term use is generally avoided for OA as safer options like NSAIDs are more effective for managing chronic symptoms without these risks.

Choice C:

Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDs) are more effective for autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. OA lacks the autoimmune pathology targeted by DMARDs, making them unsuitable for managing OA symptoms like pain or stiffness.

Choice D:

NSAIDs are the first-line therapy for OA as they effectively reduce both inflammation and pain associated with the condition. By inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, NSAIDs decrease prostaglandin production, leading to improved joint function and symptom control, making them the most common choice for OA symptom management.

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