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Multidimensional Module II Final Exam

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Total Questions : 99

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Question 1:

A wound has a bloodtinged liquid that is dripping from the surgical site. How does the nurse document this finding?

A. Purulent exudate B. Serous exudate C. Serosanguineous exudate D. Sanguineous exudate

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Purulent exudate is a thick, yellowgreen, or brown pus that indicates infection. It is not bloodtinged and does not drip from the wound.

Choice B:

Serous exudate is a clear, thin, and watery fluid that is normal in the inflammatory stage of wound healing. It does not contain blood cells and is not red in color.

Choice C:

Serosanguineous exudate is a pink or red fluid that contains both serum and blood. It is common in the proliferative stage of wound healing and may drip from the wound due to increased capillary permeability.

Choice D:

Sanguineous exudate is a bright or dark red fluid that consists mostly of blood. It indicates active bleeding and is usually seen in traumatic or surgical wounds. It is not diluted with serum and is more viscous than serosanguineous exudate.

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Question 2:

A man has been admitted to the hospital unit with a medical diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He is receiving supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min via a nasal cannula. Which positioning technique will best assist him with breathing?

A. Fowler's position B. Sim's position C. Prone position D. Lateral position

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Fowler's position is a semisitting position with the head of the bed elevated at 45 to 60 degrees. This position allows for maximum expansion of the chest and improves ventilation and oxygenation. It also reduces the work of breathing and prevents the abdominal organs from compressing the diaphragm.

Choice B:

Sim's position is a sidelying position with the lower arm behind the back and the upper knee flexed. This position is used for patients who are unconscious, have difficulty swallowing, or are receiving an enema. It does not facilitate breathing or oxygenation for patients with COPD.

Choice C:

Prone position is a lying position with the face down and the arms at the sides or bent at the elbows. This position is used for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or severe lung injury to improve oxygenation and reduce lung inflammation. It is not recommended for patients with COPD as it may increase the risk of aspiration, pressure ulcers, and nerve damage.

Choice D:

Lateral position is a sidelying position with the upper leg slightly flexed and supported by a pillow. This position is used for patients who are resting or sleeping to prevent pressure ulcers and promote comfort. It does not improve breathing or oxygenation for patients with COPD.

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Question 3:

A client has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of these assessment findings indicate possible infection? (Select all that apply.)

A. Temperature: 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit B. Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air C. Respirations: 22 breaths per minute D. Purulent drainage E. Client ambulates 20 feet

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A temperature of 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit is a sign of fever, which is a common symptom of infection. Clients with AIDS have a weakened immune system and are more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Fever indicates that the body is trying to fight off an infection.

Choice B:

An oxygen saturation of 97% on room air is within the normal range and does not indicate infection. Oxygen saturation measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen in the blood. A low oxygen saturation may indicate respiratory problems, such as pneumonia, which is a common infection in clients with AIDS.

Choice C:

A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute is slightly above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute, but it does not necessarily indicate infection. Respiratory rate may vary depending on factors such as activity level, stress, pain, or anxiety. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, which could be caused by infection or other conditions.

Choice D:

Purulent drainage is a thick, yellowgreen, or brown pus that indicates infection. It may come from a wound, an abscess, or a body cavity. Purulent drainage is a sign of inflammation and infection and should be reported to the health care provider.

Choice E:

A client's ability to ambulate 20 feet is not related to infection. Ambulation is a measure of mobility and function and may be affected by factors such as pain, fatigue, or muscle weakness. Ambulation does not reflect the presence or absence of infection.

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Question 4:

A provider has ordered a wound culture for a client with a nonhealing wound. What is the nurse's first action?

A. Put on nonsterile gloves B. Gently remove the soiled dressings C. Irrigate the wound D. Label the specimen tube

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Putting on nonsterile gloves is the first action that the nurse should take before performing a wound culture. This is to protect the nurse from exposure to blood and body fluids and to prevent crosscontamination. Nonsterile gloves are sufficient for wound care as long as the wound is not sterile or infected.

Choice B:

Gently removing the soiled dressings is the second action that the nurse should take after putting on nonsterile gloves. This is to expose the wound and prepare it for irrigation and culture. The nurse should discard the soiled dressings in a biohazard bag and observe the wound for any signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, or odor.

Choice C:

Irrigating the wound is the third action that the nurse should take after removing the soiled dressings. This is to cleanse the wound and remove any debris or bacteria. The nurse should use sterile normal saline or an antiseptic solution as prescribed by the provider and irrigate the wound with a syringe or a spray bottle. The nurse should avoid touching the wound with the irrigation device and collect the runoff in a basin or a towel.

Choice D:

Labeling the specimen tube is the last action that the nurse should take after irrigating the wound and obtaining the culture. This is to ensure that the specimen is correctly identified and processed by the laboratory. The nurse should label the tube with the client's name, date, time, and site of the wound. The nurse should also document the procedure and the wound assessment in the client's chart.

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Question 5:

The nurse has documented the following wound assessment: “Shallow, open, reddened ulcer with no drainage on the center of the right heel.” What stage is the wound?

A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Stage 1 is a wound that involves only the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. It appears as a nonblanchable redness, warmth, or hardness on intact skin. It does not have any breakage or ulceration of the skin.

Choice B:

Stage 2 is a wound that involves the epidermis and the dermis, the second layer of the skin. It appears as a shallow, open, reddened ulcer with a partialthickness loss of skin. It may have some serous exudate, but no slough or eschar. It may also present as a blister or abrasion.

Choice C:

Stage 3 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, and the subcutaneous tissue, the third layer of the skin. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin. It may have some slough or eschar, but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. It may also have tunneling or undermining of the wound edges.

Choice D:

Stage 4 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, the subcutaneous tissue, and the underlying structures, such as bone, tendon, or muscle. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin and tissue. It has exposed bone, tendon, or muscle, which may be visible or palpable. It may also have slough, eschar, necrosis, infection, or osteomyelitis.

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Question 6:

A nurse is caring for an intubated and sedated geriatric client. What intervention is most appropriate for reducing the risk of a friction and shear injury?

A. Postpone daily bed bath B. Elevate the client’s head of the bed to 45 degrees C. Caregiver independently slides the client up in bed D. Use a mechanical lift to reposition the client every 2 hours

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Postponing daily bed bath is not appropriate for reducing the risk of a friction and shear injury. Bed bath is a hygiene measure that helps to keep the skin clean and dry and prevent infection. Friction and shear are caused by the rubbing and pulling of the skin against the bed surface, not by the bed bath itself.

Choice B:

Elevating the client’s head of the bed to 45 degrees is not appropriate for reducing the risk of a friction and shear injury. In fact, this may increase the risk as the client may slide down the bed due to gravity and cause more friction and shear on the skin. The head of the bed should be kept at the lowest possible angle, preferably less than 30 degrees, unless contraindicated by the client’s condition.

Choice C:

Caregiver independently slides the client up in bed is not appropriate for reducing the risk of a friction and shear injury. This may cause more damage to the skin as the caregiver may exert excessive force and drag the client’s skin along the bed surface. The caregiver should use a draw sheet or a slide board to lift and reposition the client with the help of another person.

Choice D:

Use a mechanical lift to reposition the client every 2 hours is the most appropriate intervention for reducing the risk of a friction and shear injury. A mechanical lift is a device that helps to transfer and reposition the client safely and comfortably. It reduces the friction and shear on the skin by lifting the client off the bed surface and avoiding any sliding or dragging. It also prevents the caregiver from injuring themselves by lifting the client manually. The client should be repositioned every 2 hours to relieve the pressure on the skin and prevent pressure ulcers.

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Question 7:

What should the nurse do first if they are stuck by a needle?

A. Flush the exposed skin with water B. Report the exposure C. Seek medical attention D. Complete an incident report

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Flushing the exposed skin with water is the first action that the nurse should take if they are stuck by a needle. This is to reduce the amount of blood or body fluid that may have entered the wound and to prevent infection. The nurse should flush the skin for at least 15 minutes and avoid using soap, antiseptic, or bleach as they may damage the skin or increase the risk of infection.

Choice B:

Reporting the exposure is the second action that the nurse should take after flushing the exposed skin with water. This is to inform the supervisor, the occupational health department, or the infection control team about the incident and to initiate the postexposure protocol. The nurse should provide the details of the exposure, such as the type and source of the needle, the depth and location of the wound, and the status of the source patient.

Choice C:

Seeking medical attention is the third action that the nurse should take after reporting the exposure. This is to receive a medical evaluation and treatment, such as testing, prophylaxis, counseling, and followup. The nurse should consult a health care provider as soon as possible and follow the recommendations for preventing or treating any potential infections, such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or HIV.

Choice D:

Completing an incident report is the last action that the nurse should take after seeking medical attention. This is to document the exposure and the actions taken and to identify the causes and the preventive measures for the future. The nurse should fill out the incident report form accurately and objectively and submit it to the appropriate authority. The incident report is not a part of the client's record and should not be mentioned in the client's chart.

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Question 8:

The nurse is most concerned about which of these findings in a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

A. The client has a butterfly rash B. Blood pressure of 126/85 mm Hg C. The client reports chronic fatigue D. Urine output of 20 mL/hour

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client having a butterfly rash is not a concerning finding in a client with SLE. A butterfly rash is a malar rash that appears across the cheeks and the bridge of the nose. It is a common sign of SLE and may flare up or fade depending on the disease activity. It does not indicate any serious complication or organ damage.

Choice B:

A blood pressure of 126/85 mm Hg is not a concerning finding in a client with SLE. This blood pressure is within the normal range and does not indicate hypertension or hypotension. Hypertension is a possible complication of SLE that may affect the kidneys, the heart, or the brain. Hypotension may indicate shock, dehydration, or infection.

Choice C:

The client reporting chronic fatigue is not a concerning finding in a client with SLE. Chronic fatigue is a common symptom of SLE that affects the quality of life and the ability to perform daily activities. It may be caused by inflammation, pain, anemia, depression, or medication side effects. It does not indicate any acute or lifethreatening condition.

Choice D:

A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a concerning finding in a client with SLE. This urine output is below the normal range of 30 to 50 mL/hour and indicates oliguria, which is a reduced urine production. Oliguria may indicate acute kidney injury, which is a serious complication of SLE that may lead to renal failure or death. The nurse should monitor the client's urine output, fluid balance, electrolytes, and kidney function and report any abnormal findings to the provider.

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Question 9:

A client is recovering from a fractured radius that occurred 8 weeks ago. In which stage of bone healing is the callus resorbed and transformed into bone?

A. Stage 4 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 5 D. Stage 1

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Stage 4 is the remodeling stage of bone healing, which occurs from 6 to 12 weeks after the fracture. In this stage, the callus, which is a mass of fibrous tissue and cartilage that forms around the fracture site, is gradually resorbed and replaced by mature bone. The bone becomes stronger and more compact and regains its original shape and function.

Choice B:

Stage 3 is the callus formation stage of bone healing, which occurs from 2 to 6 weeks after the fracture. In this stage, the granulation tissue, which is a soft tissue that fills the fracture gap, is replaced by a callus that bridges the fracture ends. The callus is composed of fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts that produce collagen, cartilage, and bone matrix. The callus stabilizes the fracture and prepares it for remodeling.

Choice C:

Stage 5 is not a valid stage of bone healing. There are only four stages of bone healing: stage 1 is the inflammatory stage, stage 2 is the reparative stage, stage 3 is the callus formation stage, and stage 4 is the remodeling stage.

Choice D:

Stage 1 is the inflammatory stage of bone healing, which occurs from the time of the fracture to 3 to 5 days after the fracture. In this stage, the blood vessels around the fracture site are ruptured and form a hematoma, which is a blood clot that surrounds the fracture ends. The hematoma triggers an inflammatory response that involves the release of cytokines, growth factors, and inflammatory cells that initiate the healing process. The hematoma also provides a scaffold for the granulation tissue to grow.

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Question 10:

The nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. The client asks the nurse why this can happen. What is the best response by the nurse?

A. A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area. B. An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment. C. Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand. D. The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area is not the best response by the nurse. This may be a possible complication of a fracture, but it does not explain the mechanism of compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a condition where the pressure within a closed space (such as a muscle compartment) exceeds the perfusion pressure and causes ischemia and necrosis of the tissues. A bone fragment may damage the nerve, but it does not cause increased pressure in the compartment.

Choice B:

An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment is not the best response by the nurse. This may be a possible cause of compartment syndrome, but it is not the most common one. Compartment syndrome is more often caused by venous obstruction than arterial obstruction. An injured artery may reduce the blood flow to the compartment, but it does not cause increased pressure in the compartment.

Choice C:

Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand is the best response by the nurse. This is the most common cause of compartment syndrome and explains the pathophysiology of the condition. Bleeding and swelling are the result of inflammation and tissue injury that occur after a fracture. They increase the volume of fluid in the compartment, which cannot expand due to the rigid fascia that surrounds it. This leads to increased pressure in the compartment, which compresses the blood vessels, nerves, and muscles and causes ischemia and necrosis of the tissues.

Choice D:

The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles is not the best response by the nurse. This is not a correct statement, as the fascia does not expand with injury. The fascia is a tough connective tissue that encloses the muscle compartments and limits their expansion. The fascia is part of the problem, not the cause, of compartment syndrome. The fascia prevents the compartment from accommodating the increased volume of fluid and causes increased pressure in the compartment.

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Total Questions : 99

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Multidimensional Module II Final Exam

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