Review Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Exam 1

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Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Exam 1

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Total Questions : 86

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Question 1:

Which site will the nurse use to measure the patient’s pulse rate before administering the cardiac medication Digoxin?

A. Apical B. Carotid C. Radial D. Brachial

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is the correct choice because the apical pulse is the most accurate measurement of the heart rate and rhythm. Digoxin is a cardiac medication that affects the heart rate and can cause arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should use the apical pulse to monitor the patient's response to the medication.

Choice B:

This is an incorrect choice because the carotid pulse is not the best site to measure the heart rate before administering digoxin. The carotid pulse is located in the neck and can be affected by external factors such as pressure or movement. The carotid pulse is also not recommended for routine use because it can stimulate the vagus nerve and lower the heart rate.

Choice C:

This is an incorrect choice because the radial pulse is not the best site to measure the heart rate before administering digoxin. The radial pulse is located in the wrist and can be affected by peripheral factors such as circulation or temperature. The radial pulse can also be inaccurate or irregular if the patient has an arrhythmia.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because the brachial pulse is not the best site to measure the heart rate before administering digoxin. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm and can be affected by arm position or blood pressure. The brachial pulse is also not as reliable as the apical pulse for detecting changes in the heart rate and rhythm.

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Question 2:

The nurse is caring for a patient whose temperature has dropped from 102.4°F to 99.4°F. The nurse notes that the patient’s face is flushed. What is the reason for this assessment finding?

A. The patient’s core temperature has dropped too low. B. Vasodilation is working to lower the body temperature. C. The patient is exhausted from shivering. D. The patient’s infection has spread to the bloodstream.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is an incorrect choice because the patient’s core temperature has not dropped too low. The normal body temperature range is 97.7°F to 99.5°F¹. The patient’s temperature is still within this range, although it has decreased from a feverish level.

Choice B:

This is the correct choice because vasodilation is the process of widening the blood vessels to increase blood flow and heat loss². This is a natural response of the body to lower the temperature when it is too high. Vasodilation can cause the skin to appear flushed and feel warm to the touch³.

Choice C:

This is an incorrect choice because the patient is not exhausted from shivering. Shivering is another mechanism of the body to increase the temperature when it is too low². Shivering involves involuntary muscle contractions that generate heat³. The patient’s temperature is not too low, so shivering is not likely to occur.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because the patient’s infection has not spread to the bloodstream. A bloodstream infection, or sepsis, is a serious condition that can cause a high fever, not a low one. Sepsis can also cause other symptoms, such as chills, rapid breathing, and confusion. The patient’s temperature has dropped, not increased, and there is no evidence of sepsis.

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Question 3:

The nurse is caring for a patient with the following vital signs:
Temperature: 98.9°F
Pulse: 94
Respirations: 20
Blood pressure: 144/94
Pulse oximetry: 94%
What is the priority action of the nurse?

A. Ask the patient about his usual blood pressure results. B. Apply a cool washcloth to the patient's forehead. C. Administer oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula. D. Document the findings in the patient's medical record.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is an incorrect choice because asking the patient about his usual blood pressure results is not a priority action. The patient's blood pressure is elevated, but not dangerously high. The nurse should monitor the blood pressure and report any significant changes to the physician, but this is not an urgent intervention.

Choice B:

This is an incorrect choice because applying a cool washcloth to the patient's forehead is not a priority action. The patient's temperature is normal, and there is no indication of fever or heat stroke. The nurse should ensure the patient is comfortable and hydrated, but this is not an urgent intervention.

Choice C:

This is the correct choice because administering oxygen at 2 L/minute via nasal cannula is a priority action. The patient's pulse oximetry is low, indicating hypoxia or inadequate oxygenation of the tissues. The nurse should provide supplemental oxygen to improve the patient's oxygen saturation and prevent further complications.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because documenting the findings in the patient's medical record is not a priority action. The nurse should document the patient's vital signs and any interventions performed, but this is not an urgent intervention. The nurse should prioritize the patient's safety and well-being over documentation.

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Question 4:

Which vital signs are most important for a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath?

A. Temperature, pulse, blood pressure B. Pulse, respirations, oxygen saturation C. Temperature, pulse, respirations D. Respirations, blood pressure, pain

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is an incorrect choice because temperature, pulse, and blood pressure are not the most important vital signs for a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath. Temperature is not directly related to respiratory function, and pulse and blood pressure can be affected by other factors, such as anxiety or medication.

Choice B:

This is the correct choice because pulse, respirations, and oxygen saturation are the most important vital signs for a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath. Pulse reflects the heart rate and rhythm, which can be altered by respiratory distress. Respirations reflect the rate and depth of breathing, which can indicate the severity of the condition. Oxygen saturation reflects the percentage of hemoglobin that is bound with oxygen, which can indicate the adequacy of oxygenation.

Choice C:

This is an incorrect choice because temperature, pulse, and respirations are not the most important vital signs for a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath. Temperature is not directly related to respiratory function, and respirations alone do not provide enough information about the oxygenation status of the patient.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because respirations, blood pressure, and pain are not the most important vital signs for a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath. Blood pressure can be affected by other factors, such as anxiety or medication, and pain is a subjective symptom that can vary from person to person. Oxygen saturation is a more objective and reliable indicator of oxygenation than pain.

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Question 5:

Which technique will provide the most accurate measurement of the patient’s core temperature?

A. Axillary B. Orally C. Rectally D. Forehead

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is an incorrect choice because the axillary method is not the most accurate measurement of the core temperature. The axillary method involves placing a thermometer under the patient's armpit and measuring the temperature of the skin surface. This method can be affected by factors such as sweating, clothing, and ambient temperature. The axillary method can underestimate the core temperature by 0.5°C to 1.5°C¹.

Choice B:

This is an incorrect choice because the oral method is not the most accurate measurement of the core temperature. The oral method involves placing a thermometer in the patient's mouth and measuring the temperature of the sublingual pocket. This method can be affected by factors such as eating, drinking, smoking, and mouth breathing. The oral method can underestimate the core temperature by 0.3°C to 0.8°C¹.

Choice C:

This is the correct choice because the rectal method is the most accurate measurement of the core temperature. The rectal method involves inserting a thermometer into the patient's rectum and measuring the temperature of the rectal mucosa. This method reflects the temperature of the blood flowing through the core of the body. The rectal method is considered the gold standard for measuring the core temperature¹.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because the forehead method is not the most accurate measurement of the core temperature. The forehead method involves placing a thermometer on the patient's forehead and measuring the temperature of the temporal artery. This method can be affected by factors such as sweating, hair, and ambient temperature. The forehead method can overestimate or underestimate the core temperature by 0.5°C to 1°C¹.

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Question 6:

Which key elements are included in decentralized decision making? (Select all that apply)

A. Autonomy B. Authority C. Prioritization D. Responsibility E. Accountability

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is a correct choice because autonomy is a key element of decentralized decision making. Autonomy refers to the ability and right of individuals or groups to make their own decisions without interference from others. Decentralized decision making empowers the employees to exercise their autonomy and use their own judgment and expertise to solve problems and improve performance².

Choice B:

This is a correct choice because authority is a key element of decentralized decision making. Authority refers to the power and legitimacy to make decisions and take actions. Decentralized decision making delegates the authority from the top management to the lower levels of the organization, allowing them to make decisions that affect their work and outcomes².

Choice C:

This is an incorrect choice because prioritization is not a key element of decentralized decision making. Prioritization refers to the process of ranking tasks or goals according to their importance and urgency. Decentralized decision making does not necessarily involve prioritization, as different individuals or groups may have different criteria and preferences for setting their priorities².

Choice D:

This is a correct choice because responsibility is a key element of decentralized decision making. Responsibility refers to the obligation and duty to perform the assigned tasks and achieve the desired results. Decentralized decision making assigns the responsibility to the individuals or groups who make the decisions and hold them accountable for their actions and outcomes².

Choice E:

This is a correct choice because accountability is a key element of decentralized decision making. Accountability refers to the expectation and requirement to report and explain the decisions and actions taken and the results achieved. Decentralized decision making ensures that the individuals or groups who make the decisions are accountable for their performance and quality, and that they receive feedback and recognition for their work².

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Question 7:

Which leadership skills will the nursing student use when caring for patients? (Select all that apply)

A. Careful delegation B. Team communication C. Case management D. Time management E. Priority setting

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is a correct choice because careful delegation is a leadership skill that involves assigning tasks to the appropriate staff members based on their scope of practice, competence, and availability. Careful delegation ensures that the nursing student can focus on the most important aspects of patient care while supervising and supporting the delegated staff¹.

Choice B:

This is a correct choice because team communication is a leadership skill that involves exchanging information, ideas, and feedback with other members of the health care team in a clear, respectful, and timely manner. Team communication facilitates collaboration, coordination, and continuity of care for the patients².

Choice C:

This is a correct choice because case management is a leadership skill that involves planning, organizing, and evaluating the care of a specific group of patients across the continuum of care. Case management ensures that the patients receive the best quality of care while optimizing the use of resources and reducing costs³.

Choice D:

This is a correct choice because time management is a leadership skill that involves prioritizing, scheduling, and completing tasks within the available time. Time management helps the nursing student to balance the demands of patient care, education, and personal life while avoiding stress and burnout.

Choice E:

This is a correct choice because priority setting is a leadership skill that involves identifying the most urgent and important tasks and goals and allocating the appropriate time and resources to them. Priority setting helps the nursing student to provide safe and effective care for the patients while meeting their needs and expectations.

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Question 8:

Once a week, staff members from all the disciplines caring for the trauma patients get together to discuss their progress. Which term best describes this patient care action?

A. Professional shared governance B. Nursing care delivery model C. Interprofessional communication D. Continuing staff education

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is an incorrect choice because professional shared governance is not a patient care action, but an organizational model that empowers nurses and other health care professionals to participate in decision making and policy development within their practice settings.

Choice B:

This is an incorrect choice because nursing care delivery model is not a patient care action, but a framework that defines how nursing care is organized, coordinated, and delivered to the patients. Examples of nursing care delivery models include primary nursing, team nursing, and case management.

Choice C:

This is the correct choice because interprofessional communication is a patient care action that involves exchanging information, ideas, and feedback among health care professionals from different disciplines who work together to provide comprehensive care for the patients. Interprofessional communication enhances collaboration, quality, and safety of care.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because continuing staff education is not a patient care action, but a professional development activity that involves updating and enhancing the knowledge and skills of the health care staff through formal or informal learning opportunities. Continuing staff education improves the competence and performance of the staff.

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Question 9:

Once a week, staff members from all the disciplines caring for the trauma patients get together to discuss their progress. Which term best describes this patient care action?

A. Professional shared governance B. Nursing care delivery model C. Interprofessional communication D. Continuing staff education

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Choice B:

Choice C:

Choice D:

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Question 10:

Which is the first action of the nurse when starting care for the patient at the beginning of the shift?

A. Perform a focused patient assessment. B. Conduct the patient’s health history. C. Create the nursing care plan for the patient. D. Administer prescribed medications.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is the correct choice because performing a focused patient assessment is the first action of the nurse when starting care for the patient at the beginning of the shift. A focused patient assessment involves collecting data about the patient's current condition, needs, and preferences. This data helps the nurse to identify any changes, problems, or risks that require immediate attention or intervention.

Choice B:

This is an incorrect choice because conducting the patient’s health history is not the first action of the nurse when starting care for the patient at the beginning of the shift. A health history involves collecting data about the patient's past and present health status, medical history, family history, and social history. This data helps the nurse to understand the patient's background, risk factors, and health goals. A health history is usually conducted during the admission process or the initial assessment, not at the beginning of each shift.

Choice C:

This is an incorrect choice because creating the nursing care plan for the patient is not the first action of the nurse when starting care for the patient at the beginning of the shift. A nursing care plan involves developing a set of interventions and outcomes based on the patient's assessment data, diagnosis, and goals. This plan guides the nurse to provide individualized and holistic care for the patient. A nursing care plan is usually created after the initial assessment and updated regularly throughout the care process, not at the beginning of each shift.

Choice D:

This is an incorrect choice because administering prescribed medications is not the first action of the nurse when starting care for the patient at the beginning of the shift. Administering prescribed medications involves giving the patient the right drug, dose, route, time, and documentation according to the physician's order and the nursing standards. This action requires the nurse to check the patient's assessment data, allergies, vital signs, and laboratory results before giving the medication. Administering prescribed medications is usually done after performing a focused patient assessment, not before.

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Total Questions : 86

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Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Exam 1

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