Review ATI RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 B with NGN

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ATI RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 B with NGN

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Total Questions : 97

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Question 1:

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?

A. Active B. Transition C. Latent D. Descent

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Active is incorrect. The active phase of labor typically begins when the cervix is around 4 to 6 centimeters dilated. Given that the client's cervix is already dilated to 9 cm, she has progressed beyond the active phase.

Choice B:

Transition is correct. The transition phase is the final part of the first stage of labor and occurs when the cervix is dilated from 8 to 10 centimeters. In this phase, contractions are typically strong, occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, and lasting 80 to 90 seconds. The sensation of increasing rectal pressure is common during the transition phase as the baby's head descends further into the birth canal. The advanced cervical dilation to 9 cm also indicates that the client is in the transition phase, preparing for the second stage of labor.

Choice C:

Latent is incorrect. The latent phase is the early part of the first stage of labor, characterized by cervical dilation from 0 to 3 or 4 centimeters. The client's cervix is already dilated to 9 cm, indicating that she has progressed well beyond the latent phase.

Choice D:

Descent is incorrect. The descent phase is generally associated with the second stage of labor, during which the baby moves through the birth canal. The information provided primarily relates to the first stage of labor, specifically the transition phase, as indicated by the cervical dilation of 9 cm.

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Question 2:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hr postpartum. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement during the taking-hold phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment?

A. Discuss contraceptive options with the client and her partner. B. Repeat information to ensure client understanding. C. Listen to the client and her partner as they reflect upon the birth experience. D. Demonstrate to the client how to perform a newborn bath

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Discussing contraceptive options typically occurs later in the postpartum period, often during follow-up visits. This is not a priority during the early taking-hold phase, when the mother is focused on learning to care for herself and her baby.

Choice B:

Repeating information and ensuring understanding is more critical during the taking-in phase, which occurs in the first 24 to 48 hours postpartum, when the mother is more passive, fatigued, and focused on her own recovery. In the taking-hold phase, the mother is typically more alert and eager to learn.

Choice C:

Reflecting on the birth experience is more aligned with the taking-in phase, when the mother is focused on herself and may need emotional support in processing the experience.

Choice D:

In the taking-hold phase, the mother is ready to take responsibility for the care of her newborn and actively seeks guidance. Demonstrating how to bathe the newborn is an appropriate intervention, as it provides practical support and helps the mother gain confidence in newborn care.

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Question 3:

A nurse is performing a vaginal examination on a client who is in labor and observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagin

A. Place a rolled towel beneath one of the client's hips. B. Apply internal upward pressure to the presenting part using two gloved fingers. C. Administer oxygen to the client via a nonrebreather mask at 10 L/min. D. Increase the infusion rate

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Placing the shoulder harness in the slots above the newborn's shoulders is incorrect. The harness should be threaded through the slots at or below the baby's shoulders to provide proper protection.

Choice B:

Placing the retainer clip at the level of the newborn's armpits is correct. This is a critical safety measure to ensure that the harness straps are positioned correctly on the newborn. Placing the retainer clip at the level of the armpits helps secure the harness straps over the baby's shoulders and prevents them from slipping off.

Choice C:

Placing the newborn at a 60° angle in the car seat is not a standard recommendation. The car seat should be installed according to the manufacturer's instructions, and the baby should be placed in a semi-reclined position, typically at a 45° angle, to ensure proper support for the newborn's head and airway.

Choice D:

Placing the newborn in a blanket before securing them in the car seat is not recommended. Extra padding, including bulky clothing or blankets, should not be placed under the harness straps as it can compromise the effectiveness of the restraint system. The baby should be dressed in thin layers, and if additional warmth is needed, a blanket can be placed over the baby after securing them in the car seat.

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Question 4:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is requesting epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Place the client in a supine position for 30 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution. B. Administer 1.000 mL of dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution. C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every minute following the first dose of anesthetic solution. D. Ensure the client has been NPO 4 hr prior to the treatment of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Placing the client in a supine position for 30 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a standard recommendation. The positioning during epidural placement is typically a seated or side-lying position.

Choice B:

Administering 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a standard practice for epidural anesthesi A. Fluids may be administered, but the type and volume depend on the patient's individual needs and the healthcare provider's orders.

Choice C:

Monitoring the client's blood pressure every minute following the first dose of anesthetic solution is appropriate. Epidural anesthesia can potentially cause hypotension (low blood pressure), which is a common side effect. Therefore, close monitoring of the client's blood pressure is crucial, especially following the administration of the initial dose of the anesthetic solution. The goal is to promptly detect and manage any decrease in blood pressure to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

Choice D:

Ensuring the client has been NPO (nothing by mouth) for 4 hours prior to the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution is not a specific requirement for epidural anesthesi A. NPO status is more relevant to surgical procedures involving general anesthesia and is not typically a strict requirement for epidural placement.

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Question 5:

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation regarding a 1-hr glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "You will need to drink the glucose solution 2 hours prior to the test." B. "Limit your carbohydrate intake for 3 days prior to the test." C. "A blood glucose of 130 to 140 is considered a positive screening result. D. "You will need to fast for 12 hours prior to the test

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Drinking the glucose solution 2 hours prior to the test is not standard for a 1-hour GTT. Instead, the glucose solution is usually consumed within a short timeframe, such as 5 minutes, and the blood is drawn 1 hour afterward.

Choice B:

Limiting carbohydrate intake for 3 days prior to the test is not a requirement for a 1-hour GTT. However, it may be advised for a longer fasting period or a different type of glucose tolerance test.

Choice C:

C. “A blood glucose of 130 to 140 is considered a positive screening result.”

In the 1-hour glucose tolerance test during pregnancy, a blood glucose level of135 mg/dL or higheris considered a positive screening result. If this threshold is met, further testing (such as the 3-hour glucose tolerance test) is recommended to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.

Choice D:

Fasting for 12 hours prior to the test is inappropriate. For a 1-hour GTT, the client is not typically required to fast.

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Question 6:

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a newborn who is 4 hr old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Bilirubin 9 mg/dL B. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL C. Platelets 175.0000/mm3 D. Hematocrit 45%

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Bilirubin 9 mg/dL is correct. A bilirubin level of 9 mg/dL in a newborn, especially at 4 hours old, is elevated and needs prompt attention. High bilirubin levels in newborns can be indicative of jaundice, and severe jaundice may lead to complications such as kernicterus. Monitoring and managing bilirubin levels are crucial to prevent potential neurologic damage.

Choice B:

Hemoglobin 15 g/dL is incorrect. This hemoglobin level is within the normal range for a newborn. It's important to note that newborns often have higher hemoglobin levels shortly after birth, and this value is consistent with normal physiological ranges.

Choice C:

Platelets 175,000/mm³ is incorrect. A platelet count of 175,000/mm³ is within the normal range for a newborn. There is no immediate concern based on this platelet count.

Choice D:

Hematocrit 45% is incorrect. A hematocrit level of 45% is within the normal range for a newborn. Like hemoglobin, hematocrit levels can be higher in newborns shortly after birth, and this value falls within the expected range.

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Question 7:

A nurse is providing teaching about family planning to a client who has a new prescription for a diaphragm. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "You should replace the diaphragm every 5 years." B. "You should leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse." C. "You should use an oil-based product as a lubricant when inserting the diaphragm." D. "You should insert the diaphragm when your bladder is full."

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

"You should replace the diaphragm every 5 years." This statement is inappropriate. Diaphragms typically need replacement more frequently than every 5 years. The lifespan of a diaphragm is usually shorter, and it may need to be replaced every 1 to 2 years, depending on the material and condition.

Choice B:

"You should leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse." This statement is appropriate. Leaving the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse helps ensure its effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Removing it too soon may increase the risk of sperm reaching the cervix.

Choice C:

"You should use an oil-based product as a lubricant when inserting the diaphragm. "This statement is inappropriate. Oil-based lubricants can damage latex diaphragms. Water-based or silicone-based lubricants are recommended instead.

Choice D:

"You should insert the diaphragm when your bladder is full." This statement is inappropriate. There is no specific need to insert the diaphragm when the bladder is full. However, emptying the bladder before insertion may make the process more comfortable for the client.

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Question 8:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Hgb 20 g/dL B. Total bilirubin 5 mg/dL C. Blood glucose 30 mg/dL D. WBC count 20.000/mm3

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 20 g/dL is elevated, but this can be a normal finding in a newborn and does not necessarily require immediate intervention.

Choice B:

Total bilirubin of 5 mg/dL is within the normal range for a 24-hour-old newborn.

Choice C:

Blood glucose 30 mg/dL. A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL is significantly lower than the normal range for a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurologic complications, so it is important to report this result promptly for further evaluation and intervention.

Choice D:

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm³ is within the expected range for a newborn and is not a cause for immediate concern. Newborns often have higher WBC counts shortly after birth.

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Question 9:

A nurse is teaching a client who has pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. "I should have a goal of maintaining my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120." B. "I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or greater." C. "I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting D. "I will ensure that my bedtime snack is high in refined sugar."

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

"I should have a goal of maintaining my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching. Recommended target for fasting blood glucose levels during pregnancy in women with diabetes is typically lower, often between 60 and 90 mg/dL.

Choice B:

"I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or greater." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching . Exercising when blood glucose is already elevated to 250 or greater may not be safe. Exercise is generally recommended to help manage blood glucose levels, but the specific approach and timing should be discussed with the healthcare provider.

Choice C:

"I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting." This statement reflects an awareness of the importance of continuing insulin administration even if the client is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Consistent insulin management is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range during pregnancy.

Choice D:

"I will ensure that my bedtime snack is high in refined sugar." This statement does not indicate understanding of the teaching. Bedtime snacks should focus on providing sustained energy and stabilizing blood glucose levels. A snack high in refined sugar is not recommended as it can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels.

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Question 10:

A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth vaginally 12 hr ago and palpates her uterus to the right above the umbilicus. Which of the following Interventions should the nurse perform?

A. Reassess the client in 2 hr. B. Administer simethicone. C. Assist the client to empty her bladder. D. Instruct the client to lie on her right side.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Reassess the client in 2 hours is inappropriate. While reassessment is important, addressing the cause of uterine displacement, in this case, a full bladder, should be the initial priority.

Choice B:

Administering simethicone is inappropriate. Simethicone is typically used to relieve gas and bloating. It is not the primary intervention for uterine displacement related to bladder fullness.

Choice C:

Assisting the client to empty her bladder is appropriate. A full bladder can displace the uterus and hinder its contraction, leading to potential issues such as uterine atony or increased postpartum bleeding. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus contract more effectively.

Choice D:

Instructing the client to lie on her right side is inappropriate. Lying on the right side is often recommended to improve blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus during pregnancy but may not directly address uterine displacement caused by a full bladder. The priority is to assist the client in emptying her bladder.

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ATI RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 B with NGN

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