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Choice B reason: A stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere can affect the visual functions of the brain, such as depth perception, spatial orientation, and visual recognition³. However, the deficits are usually in the left visual field, not the right, because the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body and the environment. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for deficits in the left visual field, not the right.

Choice C reason: A stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere can affect the abstract reasoning functions of the brain, such as understanding metaphors, humor, or sarcasm. However, the ability to discriminate words and letters is more related to the language functions of the brain, which are mainly controlled by the left cerebral hemisphere. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for language deficits, such as aphasia or dysarthria, if the stroke involves the left cerebral hemisphere, not the right.

Choice D reason: A stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere can affect the motor functions of the brain, such as movement, coordination, and balance³. However, the motor retardation, which is a slowing down of physical and mental activity, is more related to the mood functions of the brain, which are mainly controlled by the frontal lobe of the brain. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for motor retardation if the stroke involves the frontal lobe, not the right cerebral hemisphere.

This is incorrect. Moderate traumatic brain injury is defined as a head injury that results in a loss of consciousness for more than 30 minutes but less than 24 hours, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9 to 12, or a posttraumatic amnesia (PTA) of more than 1 hour but less than 7 days. The client's loss of consciousness for 45 minutes meets the criterion for moderate injury, but the nurse should also consider the other factors, such as the GCS score and the PTA, which are not given in the text.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Mild traumatic brain injury, also known as concussion, is defined as a head injury that results in a loss of consciousness for less than 30 minutes, a GCS score of 13 to 15, or a PTA of less than 1 hour. The client's loss of consciousness for 45 minutes exceeds the criterion for mild injury and suggests a more serious brain damage that may require intensive care and monitoring.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect. No traumatic brain injury is defined as a head injury that does not result in any alteration of brain function or evidence of brain pathology. The client's loss of consciousness for 45 minutes clearly indicates an alteration of brain function, and implies a possible brain pathology, such as contusion, hematoma, or edema. The nurse should not dismiss the client's injury as trivial, and should provide appropriate care and evaluation.

This is incorrect. Cleansing the perineum from back to front can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can introduce bacteria from the anal area to the urethra. The nurse should instruct the client to cleanse the perineum from front to back, using a mild soap and water, and to change the pad or underwear frequently to prevent bacterial growth.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling urinary catheter can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can create a direct route for bacteria to enter the bladder. Indwelling catheters should be avoided unless absolutely necessary, and should be removed as soon as possible. The nurse should explore other bladder management options for the client, such as intermittent catheterization, condom catheter, or suprapubic catheter.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Offering the client the bedpan every 2 hours can increase the risk of urinary tract infections, as it can cause urinary stasis and bladder distension. The nurse should assess the client's bladder function and determine the optimal frequency of bladder emptying, which may vary depending on the type and level of spinal cord injury. The nurse should also monitor the client's urine output, color, odor, and clarity, and report any signs of infection, such as fever, chills, or flank pain.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect. Right hemiparesis is not a common finding in clients who had a stroke involving the right hemisphere. Hemiparesis is the weakness or partial paralysis of one side of the body. It usually affects the opposite side of the body from the side of the brain that is damaged by the stroke. Therefore, a stroke in the right hemisphere would more likely cause left hemiparesis, not right hemiparesis.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Aphasia is not a common finding in clients who had a stroke involving the right hemisphere. Aphasia is the loss or impairment of language functions, such as speaking, understanding, reading, or writing. It usually affects the dominant hemisphere of the brain, which is the left hemisphere for most people. Therefore, a stroke in the right hemisphere would less likely cause aphasia, unless the person is lefthanded or ambidextrous.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect. Difficulty reading is not a common finding in clients who had a stroke involving the right hemisphere. Reading is a language function that involves the recognition and comprehension of written words. It usually depends on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, which is the left hemisphere for most people. Therefore, a stroke in the right hemisphere would less likely cause difficulty reading, unless the person is lefthanded or ambidextrous.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect. It is not best to take medication with meals. Rifampin is better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. Taking rifampin with food can reduce its effectiveness and increase the risk of drug resistance. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication as directed by the doctor, and to avoid foods that can interact with rifampin, such as cheese, yogurt, or alcohol.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Treatment with this medication will not last for 1 month. Rifampin is usually given as part of a combination therapy for pulmonary tuberculosis, along with other drugs such as isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The standard treatment regimen for drug susceptible tuberculosis consists of an intensive phase of 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of 4 or 7 months, depending on the drug regimen and the patient's response. The nurse should inform the client about the duration and the importance of completing the full course of treatment, even if the symptoms improve or the tests become negative.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect. This medication does not cause insomnia. Rifampin does not affect the sleep cycle or the quality of sleep. However, rifampin can cause other side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or rash. The nurse should instruct the client to report any severe or persistent side effects to the doctor, and to avoid taking over-the-counter drugs or herbal supplements without consulting the doctor, as rifampin can interact with many other medications and reduce their effectiveness.

This is incorrect. Taking the albuterol before taking the cromolyn is not necessary. Albuterol and cromolyn are both used to treat asthma, but they have different mechanisms of action. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that relaxes the muscles around the airways and opens them up, making it easier to breathe. Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer that prevents the release of substances that cause inflammation and allergy symptoms in the airways. Albuterol is used to relieve acute asthma attacks, while cromolyn is used to prevent chronic asthma symptoms. The nurse should advise the client to use albuterol as needed for quick relief, and to use cromolyn regularly as prescribed to prevent asthma flareups.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Using both medications immediately after exercising is not recommended. Exercise can trigger asthma symptoms in some people, such as wheezing, coughing, or shortness of breath. This is called exercise induced bronchoconstriction (EIB) or exercise induced asthma (EIA). The nurse should advise the client to use albuterol 15 to 30 minutes before exercising to prevent EIB or EIA, and to avoid exercising in cold, dry, or polluted air. The nurse should also instruct the client to use cromolyn at least 15 minutes before exercising, as it takes time to work and does not provide immediate relief. The nurse should also tell the client to stop exercising and use albuterol if asthma symptoms occur during or after exercising.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect. Using cromolyn immediately if the breathing begins to feel tight is not effective. Cromolyn is not a rescue medication that can provide quick relief of asthma symptoms. It is a preventive medication that works by reducing the inflammation and sensitivity of the airways over time. The nurse should advise the client to use albuterol instead of cromolyn if the breathing begins to feel tight, as albuterol can rapidly open up the airways and ease the breathing. The nurse should also instruct the client to seek medical attention if the albuterol does not work or if the symptoms get worse.

This is incorrect. Development of subcutaneous emphysema is not a finding that requires intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema is the presence of air under the skin, which can cause a crackling sensation when touched. It can occur after a lobectomy due to the leakage of air from the lung or the chest tube into the surrounding tissues. It is usually harmless and resolves on its own as the air is absorbed by the body. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of respiratory distress, such as dyspnea, cyanosis, or hypoxia, and report them to the doctor if they occur.

Choice B : This is incorrect. Chest tube eyelets not visible is not a finding that requires intervention. Chest tube eyelets are the small holes at the end of the chest tube that allow the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. They are usually not visible when the chest tube is inserted, as they are covered by the dressing or the drainage system. The nurse should check the position and patency of the chest tube by observing the drainage amount and color, and by auscultating the breath sounds over the affected lung. The nurse should also secure the chest tube with tape or sutures, and avoid pulling or kinking it.

Choice D: This is incorrect. The presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber is not a finding that requires intervention. The water seal chamber is the part of the chest drainage system that prevents the backflow of air or fluid into the pleural space. It is filled with sterile water to a prescribed level, and acts as a one-way valve. Tidal fluctuation is the rise and fall of the water level in this chamber with the client's breathing. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and that the lung is expanding and contracting normally. The nurse should observe the water level and report any changes, such as cessation of fluctuation, excessive fluctuation, or continuous bubbling, which can indicate problems with the chest tube or the lung.

Administering an inhaled glucocorticoid is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. Inhaled glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatory drugs that reduce airway inflammation and prevent asthma attacks, but they do not provide immediate relief of bronchoconstriction.

Determining the cause of the acute exacerbation is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. While it is important to identify and avoid potential triggers of asthma, such as allergens, infections, or stress, this is not an urgent action during a severe asthma attack.

Obtaining a peak flow reading is not the priority intervention for a child with status asthmaticus. Peak flow is a measure of how quickly the child can blow air out of the lungs, and it can indicate the degree of airway obstruction. However, peak flow measurement is not reliable or feasible during a severe asthma attack, and it should not delay the administration of bronchodilators.

Repositioning the client toward the left side is not necessary or helpful for a client who has a three-chamber closed chest tube system. The chest tube drainage system must always be placed below the drainage site and secured in an upright position to prevent it from being knocked over.

Clamping the chest tube near the water seal is not recommended for a client who has a three-chamber closed chest tube system. Clamping the chest tube can cause a buildup of air or fluid in the pleural space and increase the risk of complications such as tension pneumothorax or infection. Clamping the chest tube should only be done in certain situations, such as changing the drainage system, checking for an air leak, or removing the chest tube.

Immediately notifying the provider is not necessary for a client who has a three-chamber closed chest tube system and shows a rise in the water seal chamber with client inspiration. As mentioned above, this is a normal finding and does not indicate a problem with the chest tube system or the client's condition. The nurse should only notify the provider if there are signs of complications, such as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, excessive drainage, chest pain, dyspnea, or subcutaneous emphysema.