Review Ati nurs 240 pharmacology quiz

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Ati nurs 240 pharmacology quiz

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Total Questions : 15

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Question 1:

What is one way to minimize antibiotic resistance?

A. Using the same antibiotic for every infection B. Prescribing antibiotics for every suspected infection C. Encouraging self-medication with antibiotics D. Educating healthcare providers and patients about appropriate antibiotic use

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Using the same antibiotic for every infection can promote resistance, as it does not consider the specific pathogens or susceptibility patterns.

Choice B:

Prescribing antibiotics for every suspected infection can lead to overuse and unnecessary exposure to antibiotics, increasing the risk of resistance.

Choice C:

Encouraging self-medication with antibiotics can result in inappropriate usage and contribute to the development of resistant bacteria.

Choice D:

Educating healthcare providers and patients about appropriate antibiotic use is crucial in minimizing antibiotic resistance. This education helps ensure that antibiotics are prescribed only when necessary and used correctly, which can reduce the development of resistant strains of bacteria.

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Question 2:

Which of the following reaction to aminoglycoside therapy does not require discontinuation of treatment?

A. Nephrotoxicity B. Ototoxicity C. Nausea D. Vertigo

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Nephrotoxicity is a serious adverse effect of aminoglycosides that often require immediate discontinuation of the drug to prevent further damage.

Choice B:

Ototoxicity is a serious adverse effect of aminoglycosides that often require immediate discontinuation of the drug to prevent further damage.

Choice C:

Nausea is a common side effect of many medications, including aminoglycosides, but it typically does not necessitate discontinuation of treatment unless it is severe or persistent.

Choice D:

Vertigo can also be related to ototoxic effects and may require discontinuation depending on severity and persistence.

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Question 3:

What steps should be taken before administering a broad spectrum antibiotic?

A. Monitor vital signs and assess for any signs of allergic actions or adverse effects B. Perform a culture and sensitivity test to identify the specific pathogen. C. Administer the antibiotic immediately without a by obtaining a specimen sample D. Consult with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage of the antibiotic.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

While monitoring vital signs is important, it is not the first step in the antibiotic administration process.

Choice B:

Performing a culture and sensitivity test to identify the specific pathogen and its susceptibility is essential before administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic, as this ensures that the chosen antibiotic will be effective against the identified infection.

Choice C:

Administering the antibiotic immediately without obtaining a specimen sample may lead to ineffective treatment and can hinder identifying the causative agent later.

Choice D:

While consulting with the healthcare provider for appropriate dosage is important, it should follow the identification of the specific organism.

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Question 4:

Which of the following are examples of tertiary prophylaxis? (Select All that Apply)

A. Screening for high blood pressure B. Physical therapy for stroke patients C. Management of chronic pain in arthritis D. Vaccination for hepatitis B E. Cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction F. Hand hygiene promotion to prevent infections G. Routine mammograms for early breast cancer detection H. Healthy diet counseling to prevent diabetes

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Screening for high blood pressure is an example of secondary prevention, aimed at early detection.

Choice B:

Physical therapy for stroke patients is an example of tertiary prophylaxis as it helps restore function and prevent further complications after a stroke.

Choice C:

Management of chronic pain in arthritis is also tertiary prevention as it focuses on managing symptoms and improving quality of life after the onset of a chronic condition.

Choice D:

Vaccination for hepatitis B is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the onset of disease.

Choice E:

Cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction is aimed at recovery and preventing further cardiac events, fitting into the category of tertiary prevention.

Choice F:

Hand hygiene promotion is also a form of primary prevention to reduce infection risk.

Choice G:

Routine mammograms are examples of secondary prevention, aimed at early detection.

Choice H:

Healthy diet counseling is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the onset of disease.

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Question 5:

What is critical concentration in relation to medication therapeutic effects?

A. The concentration of a medication in the blood that is necessary for the medication to be absorbed into the body. B. The minimum concentration of a medication in the blood needed to achieve the desired therapeutic effect C. The maximum concentration of a medication in the blood that can be safely tolerated without adverse effects. D. The concentration of a medication in the blood that is considered optimal for achieving the desired therapeutic effect.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This option misrepresents critical concentration; it focuses on absorption rather than therapeutic efficacy.

Choice B:

The critical concentration refers to the minimum concentration of a medication in the blood needed to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. This concentration is essential to ensure that the medication is effective in treating the condition.

Choice C:

While the maximum concentration can relate to safety, critical concentration specifically concerns the minimum required for effectiveness.

Choice D:

This choice suggests an optimal concentration, which is different from the minimum concentration needed to achieve therapeutic effects.

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Question 6:

What is the mechanism of action used by cephalosporins in the treatment of bacterial infections?

A. inhibition of protein synth B. Inhibition of DNA replication C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Inhibition of protein synthesis is the mechanism of action for other classes of antibiotics, such as tetracyclines and macrolides.

Choice B:

Inhibition of DNA replication is characteristic of fluoroquinolones.

Choice C:

Cephalosporins work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial lysis and death. This mechanism is critical for their effectiveness against a wide range of bacterial infections.

Choice D:

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis is primarily associated with sulfonamides.

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Question 7:

What is the definition of a prototype drug?

A. A prototype drug is a medication that is used as a placebo in clinical trials. B. A prototype drug is a medication that is considered the standard or model for a particular drug class or category C. A prototype drug is a medication that is only available in generic form. D. A prototype drug is a medication that is prescribed exclusively for pediatric patients.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This option incorrectly describes a placebo, which is not related to the concept of a prototype drug.

Choice B:

A prototype drug is defined as a medication that is considered the standard or model for a particular drug class or category, serving as a reference for the development of other drugs in that class.

Choice C:

Prototype drugs can be available in both brand and generic forms; this option is not accurate.

Choice D:

Prototype drugs are not limited to pediatric use and can be prescribed for patients of all ages.

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Question 8:

Which of the following is a severe adverse reaction associated with aminoglycoside therapy?

A. Rash B. Nausea and vomiting C. Ototoxicity D. Headache

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Rash is generally a mild adverse effect and does not indicate a severe reaction.

Choice B:

Nausea and vomiting are common side effects but not classified as severe reactions.

Choice C:

Ototoxicity is a severe adverse reaction associated with aminoglycoside therapy, potentially leading to hearing loss and balance issues. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial during treatment.

Choice D:

Headache can occur but is not considered a severe adverse reaction compared to ototoxicity.

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Question 9:

Which of the following best describes pharmacokinetics?

A. The study of how drugs interact with specific drug B. The study of how drugs are developed and manufactured C. The study of how drugs are prescribed and administered D. The study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This option describes drug-drug interactions, which are part of pharmacodynamics rather than pharmacokinetics.

Choice B:

The development and manufacturing of drugs pertain more to pharmaceutical sciences than pharmacokinetics.

Choice C:

Prescribing and administering drugs are related to pharmacotherapy but do not encompass the full scope of pharmacokinetics.

Choice D:

Pharmacokinetics is defined as the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body, providing insights into the drug's action and efficacy.

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Question 10:

Aminoglycosides are effective against which strain of bacteria?

A. Viral infections B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Fungal infections D. Gram-negative bacteria

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Aminoglycosides are ineffective against viral infections, as they target bacterial pathogens.

Choice B:

While some aminoglycosides may have activity against certain Gram-positive bacteria, they are mainly used for Gram-negative infections.

Choice C:

Fungal infections require antifungal agents, not aminoglycosides.

Choice D:

Aminoglycosides are primarily effective against Gram-negative bacteria, making them valuable in treating serious infections caused by these organisms.

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Total Questions : 15

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Ati nurs 240 pharmacology quiz

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