Review Ati nurs 113 med surg sensory neuro exam

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Ati nurs 113 med surg sensory neuro exam

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Total Questions : 79

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Question 1:

Which symptoms occurs initially in Parkinson disease?

A. Aspiration B. Dementia C. Akinesia D. Pill-rolling movements of the hand

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Aspiration can occur in later stages of Parkinson disease due to impaired swallowing and muscle coordination, but it is not an initial symptom.

Choice B:

Dementia may develop as the disease progresses, but it is not typically seen in the early stages.

Choice C:

Akinesia, or the absence or loss of voluntary movement, may appear later but is not usually the first sign.

Choice D:

Pill-rolling movements of the hand (a type of resting tremor) are often one of the earliest signs of Parkinson disease and commonly prompt individuals to seek medical evaluation.

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Question 2:

Physician's Orders

The doctor orders Zithromax 500mg p.o.daily for a child who weighs 82 pounds. The safe dose range for this medication is 10-12 mg/kg/day. Zithromax is available in 250mg/tablets

What is the child's weight in kilograms? (LABEL CORRECTLY & Round to tenths)

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: "37.3" kg

Explanation

Order:Zithromax 500 mg p.o. daily
Child’s Weight:82 pounds
Question:What is the child’s weight in kilograms?

Use the conversion formula:
Weight (kg) = Weight (lb) ÷ 2.2

Weight = 82 ÷ 2.2 = 37.27 kg
Rounded to the nearest tenth: 37.3 kg

Final Answer:37.3 kg

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Question 3:

What nursing action will significantly decrease the risk of serious complications for a child in Bryant's traction?

A. The child is restrained from rolling over. B. Bandages are wrapped tightly. C. The child's buttocks are resting on the bed. D. Neurovascular checks are done frequently

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Restricting movement can cause discomfort and is not the priority intervention to prevent serious complications.

Choice B:

Bandages should be snug but not tight, as tight wrapping can impair circulation.

Choice C:

In Bryant's traction, the buttocks should be slightly elevated off the bed, not resting on it, to maintain proper traction.

Choice D:

Neurovascular checks done frequently are critical in Bryant’s traction to assess circulation, sensation, and movement. These checks help detect early signs of complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion, making this the most important action.

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Question 4:

(PHARM) A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is taking benztropine to treat Parkinson's disease. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication.

A. difficulty voiding B. slow pulse C. diarrhea D. excessive salivation

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Difficulty voiding is an anticholinergic effect of benztropine and should be reported. Urinary retention is a known adverse effect and can lead to serious complications if unaddressed.

Choice B:

A slow pulse (bradycardia) is not a common side effect of benztropine.

Choice C:

Diarrhea is not typical; benztropine more commonly causes constipation due to its anticholinergic properties.

Choice D:

Benztropine reduces salivation, so dry mouth is expected. Excessive salivation is not associated with this medication.

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Question 5:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure disorder and reports experiencing an aura. The nurse should recognize the client is experiencing which of the following conditions?

A. A brief loss of consciousness accompanied by staring B. A period of sleepiness following the seizure during which arousal is difficult C. A sensory warning that a seizure is imminent D. A continuous seizure state in which seizures occur in rapid succession

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A brief loss of consciousness with staring is characteristic of absence seizures, not an aura.

Choice B:

A period of sleepiness or confusion after a seizure is known as the postictal phase, not an aura.

Choice C:

An aura is a sensory warning sign (e.g., visual changes, strange smells, or feelings) that a seizure is about to occur. It is considered part of the seizure itself and can help predict its onset.

Choice D:

A continuous seizure state is known as status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency, but unrelated to the concept of an aura.

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Question 6:

(PHARM) Which of the following is a primary therapeutic use of allopurinol?

A. To lower uric acid levels in chronic gout B. To reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis C. To treat bacterial infections D. To relieve acute gout attacks

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Allopurinol is primarily used to lower serum uric acid levels in clients with chronic gout or conditions causing hyperuricemia. It helps prevent gout attacks but is not used to treat acute episodes.

Choice B:

Rheumatoid arthritis is treated with anti-inflammatory drugs and disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), not allopurinol.

Choice C:

Allopurinol does not have antibacterial properties and is not indicated for infections.

Choice D:

While it helps prevent future gout attacks, allopurinol is not used to relieve acute attacks—medications like colchicine or NSAIDs are preferred for that purpose.

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Question 7:

The nurse is explaining Parkinson disease to the student nurse. Which statement indicates that the student nurse correctly understands the pathophysiology of the disease?

A. "Regardless of the actual etiology. Parkinson disease is caused by depletion of dopamine and excess of acetylcholine." B. "When there is decreased dopamine uptake at receptors in brain cells, Parkinson disease results. C. "The pathophysiology of the disease is caused by the deterioration of the myelin sheath of the basal ganglia." D. "Excess dopamine and deficient acetylcholine are the cause of Parkinson disease

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Parkinson disease is characterized by dopamine depletion in the substantia nigra of the brain, resulting in a relative excess of acetylcholine. This imbalance causes the motor symptoms associated with the disease.

Choice B:

This choice misrepresents the issue; the problem lies in dopamine production, not uptake.

Choice C:

Demyelination is associated with conditions like multiple sclerosis, not Parkinson disease.

Choice D:

Parkinson disease is associated with dopamine deficiency, not excess, and a relative excess of acetylcholine, not deficiency.

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Question 8:

When caring for a patient who has an abductor wedge in place after a total hip replacement, for which finding should the nurse assess for?

A. Alteration in peripheral circulation B. Muscle spasms C. Compression fracture D. Appropriateness of the size of the wedge

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The nurse should assess for alteration in peripheral circulation, such as changes in color, temperature, pulse, or sensation in the lower extremities. The abductor wedge keeps the legs abducted to prevent dislocation of the hip, but if applied improperly, it may impair circulation or cause nerve compression.

Choice B:

Muscle spasms can occur after surgery but are not directly related to the use of an abduction wedge.

Choice C:

Compression fractures are not a typical concern in the immediate care of a patient with an abduction wedge after hip replacement.

Choice D:

While correct wedge size is important, the priority is to monitor for complications such as compromised circulation.

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Question 9:

(PHARM) To evaluate the effectiveness of levodopa-carbidopa, a nurse would watch for which result?

A. Reduction in short-term memory B. Improved visual acuity C. Lessened rigidity and tremor D. Increased dyskinesia

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Levodopa-carbidopa does not improve cognitive function or memory; it is used for motor symptom control in Parkinson’s disease.

Choice B:

Visual acuity is not affected by this medication.

Choice C:

Levodopa-carbidopa works by increasing dopamine levels in the brain, which helps reduce rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremors, improving mobility in clients with Parkinson’s disease.

Choice D:

Increased dyskinesia is a potential adverse effect of long-term levodopa use, not a sign of effectiveness.

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Question 10:

A patient is admitted to the hospital to rule out the possibility of bacterial meningitis, Which test will be most helpful in diagnosing this condition?

A. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and culture B. Cerebral angiography C. Myelography D. Magnetoencephalography (MEG)

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A lumbar puncture is the most important diagnostic test for suspected bacterial meningitis. It allows for analysis and culture of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to identify the presence of bacteria, white blood cells, protein, and glucose levels.

Choice B:

Cerebral angiography is used to visualize blood vessels in the brain, not to diagnose infections like meningitis.

Choice C:

Myelography evaluates the spinal cord, nerve roots, and spinal canal using contrast dye but is not used for diagnosing meningitis.

Choice D:

Magnetoencephalography (MEG) is used to map brain activity, often for epilepsy or brain tumors, and is not relevant for diagnosing meningitis.

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Total Questions : 79

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Ati nurs 113 med surg sensory neuro exam

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