Review ATI NUR 112 Fundamentals exam III

Exam Review

ATI NUR 112 Fundamentals exam III

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy

We are excited to announce the release of a NEW VERSION OF THE SYSTEM! To benefit from the latest features, improvements, and component updates, please switch to the new system as soon as possible.

Visit Latest Version

Total Questions : 55

Showing 10 questions, Sign in for more

Question 1:

The physician orders Ancef 500 mg IV for a urinary tract infection.

After reconstitution, the medication is available as 330 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: "1.52" mL

Explanation

Step 1 is: The physician ordered 500 mg and the available concentration is 330 mg/mL. To find the volume to administer, divide the ordered dose by the available concentration: 500 mg ÷ 330 mg/mL.

Step 2 is: 500 ÷ 330 = 1.5151.

Step 3 is: Round to the nearest hundredth as is common for medication administration: 1.52 mL.

Final answer: The nurse will administer 1.52 mL.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 2:

The nurse is caring for a client who has a bowel obstruction and a new prescription for the insertion of a nasogastric tube.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse take when inserting the nasogastric tube?

A. Place the client in a prone position. B. Measure the tube for insertion from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process. C. Instruct the client to place their chin to their chest and swallow. D. Advance the tube quickly to minimize discomfort.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Placing the client in a prone position is contraindicated during nasogastric tube insertion. This position does not facilitate the passage of the tube into the esophagus and can increase the risk of aspiration if the client were to vomit. The optimal position is high Fowler's, which utilizes gravity to aid tube advancement.

Choice B:

Measuring the nasogastric tube from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process is the correct technique to estimate the length of the tube needed to reach the stomach. This method accounts for the distance from the nasal passage, down the pharynx and esophagus, to the stomach.

Choice C:

Instructing the client to place their chin to their chest and swallow helps to close the epiglottis, thereby preventing the nasogastric tube from entering the trachea and directing it towards the esophagus. Swallowing facilitates the downward movement of the tube with esophageal peristalsis.

Choice D:

Advancing the nasogastric tube quickly increases the client's discomfort and anxiety and elevates the risk of trauma to the nasal passages, pharynx, and esophagus. The tube should be advanced slowly and gently, allowing the client to swallow and cooperate during the procedure.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 3:

A clinical instructor is reviewing the abdominal assessment with a group of students.
She would include which of the following three percussion sounds the nurse would expect to hear? (Select 3 options)

A. Hyperresonance. B. Flatness. C. Dullness. D. Resonance. E. Tympany.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Hyperresonance is a booming sound elicited during percussion, typically heard over hyperinflated lung tissue, such as in emphysema or pneumothorax. In the abdominal assessment, hyperresonance is generally not an expected finding and may indicate gaseous distension.

Choice B:

Flatness is a dull, very soft sound with a short duration, usually heard over dense tissues such as bone or muscle. In the abdomen, flatness is not a typical percussion sound and might be elicited over a large tumor or organomegaly.

Choice C:

Dullness is a thud-like sound with a medium intensity and duration, typically heard over solid organs such as the liver, spleen, or a distended bladder. In the abdominal assessment, dullness is an expected finding over these organs.

Choice D:

Resonance is a hollow sound of moderate duration and low pitch, typically heard over normal lung tissue. Resonance is not an expected percussion sound in the abdominal assessment; tympany and dullness are the predominant sounds.

Choice E:

Tympany is a drum-like sound with high pitch and longer duration, commonly heard over air-filled structures such as the stomach and intestines. Tympany is the predominant percussion sound expected over most of the abdomen due to the presence of gas in the gastrointestinal tract.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 4:

The nurse is preparing to examine a patient who has been reporting right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain.
Which technique is correct during the assessment?

A. Palpate the tender area first and then auscultate for bowel sounds. B. Examine the tender area last. C. Examine the tender area first. D. Avoid palpating the tender area altogether.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Palpating the tender area first can cause increased pain and muscle guarding, potentially interfering with the subsequent auscultation of bowel sounds. It is important to auscultate before palpation to avoid altering the natural bowel sounds.

Choice B:

Examining the tender area last minimizes the client's discomfort and reduces the likelihood of muscle guarding affecting the assessment of other abdominal areas. This systematic approach allows for a more accurate evaluation of non-tender regions before focusing on the area of complaint.

Choice C:

Examining the tender area first will likely cause the patient increased discomfort, leading to muscle guarding that can make it difficult to accurately assess other areas of the abdomen. This approach can also make the patient apprehensive and less cooperative for the remainder of the examination.

Choice D:

Avoiding palpation of the tender area altogether would result in an incomplete assessment. Palpation is crucial for evaluating tenderness, masses, and organomegaly in the area of the patient's pain. Modifying the order of assessment is preferred over complete avoidance.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 5:

A nurse inspects the abdomen for skin color, contour, surface characteristics, and symmetry.
What part of the abdominal assessment does the nurse perform next?

A. Light palpation for tenderness and muscle tone. B. Auscultation of the bowel sounds in all four quadrants. C. Percussion for tones in all four quadrants. D. Deep palpation for masses or aortic pulsations.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Light palpation is typically performed after auscultation to assess for superficial tenderness, muscle tone, and pulsations. Auscultation precedes palpation to avoid inducing artificial bowel sounds or altering existing ones due to manual pressure.

Choice B:

Auscultation of bowel sounds in all four quadrants is the next step in the abdominal assessment after inspection. Listening to bowel sounds provides information about the motility of the gastrointestinal tract and should be done before palpation or percussion, which can alter these sounds.

Choice C:

Percussion for tones in all four quadrants is usually performed after auscultation and before palpation. Percussion helps to assess the size and density of abdominal organs and to identify the presence of fluid or air.

Choice D:

Deep palpation is performed last in the abdominal assessment sequence to evaluate for deeper masses and aortic pulsations. It follows inspection, auscultation, and light palpation, allowing the nurse to gather preliminary information before applying deeper pressure. .

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 6:

A nurse is planning care for a client who has dysphagia.
The nurse should plan to assist with the request of a referral to which of the following members of the health care team?

A. Speech therapist. B. Respiratory therapist. C. Dentist. D. Physical therapist.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A speech therapist specializes in diagnosing and treating swallowing disorders, such as dysphagia. They assess the client’s ability to swallow safely and provide interventions to improve swallowing techniques, including exercises and modifications to diet. Referral to a speech therapist is essential for managing dysphagia and preventing complications like aspiration pneumonia.

Choice B:

A respiratory therapist primarily deals with breathing problems and airway management, not swallowing difficulties. While respiratory therapists play a role in managing clients with respiratory distress, they do not specialize in dysphagia.

Choice C:

A dentist focuses on oral health, which is important for overall health, but they are not the appropriate specialist for managing dysphagia. While they may address oral conditions that could impact swallowing, dysphagia management requires the expertise of a speech therapist.

Choice D:

A physical therapist focuses on physical movement and rehabilitation. While physical therapy may assist in mobility and motor coordination, dysphagia management falls within the domain of a speech therapist, not a physical therapist.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 7:

The nurse places a nasogastric tube (NGT) as ordered by the physician.
When confirming placement, the nurse aspirates stomach contents and measures the gastric pH at 3. What should the nurse do next?

A. Secure the tube and retest the pH in one hour. B. Insert the tube an additional 1-2 inches and retest the pH. C. Auscultate for the "swoosh" of air. D. Obtain an x-ray to confirm placement.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Securing the tube and retesting the pH in one hour is insufficient to confirm correct placement. While a pH of 3 suggests gastric placement (normal gastric pH is typically 1.5 to 3.5), it doesn't definitively rule out placement in the respiratory tract or intestines, as these can occasionally have acidic pH levels. Delaying definitive confirmation could lead to serious complications if the tube is misplaced.

Choice B:

Inserting the tube an additional 1-2 inches and retesting the pH is not a reliable method for confirming placement. Advancing the tube further without radiographic confirmation could increase the risk of trauma to the gastrointestinal tract or even pulmonary aspiration if the initial placement was incorrect. pH testing alone is not conclusive.

Choice C:

Auscultating for the "swoosh" of air while injecting air into the NG tube is an outdated and unreliable method for confirming placement. The sound can be misleading and may be heard even if the tube is incorrectly positioned in the esophagus or lungs. This method does not provide definitive proof of gastric placement and poses a risk of aspiration.

Choice D:

Obtaining an x-ray is the gold standard for confirming nasogastric tube placement. Radiographic imaging allows for direct visualization of the tube's trajectory and ensures that the distal tip is correctly positioned in the stomach or duodenum. This method provides the most accurate and reliable confirmation, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration or misadministration of feedings and medications.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 8:

A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Instruct the client to tilt their head back while swallowing. B. Elevate the client's head of the bed to 45° during meals. C. Alternate the client's liquids and solids during meals. D. Encourage the client to lie flat after meals.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Instructing a client with dysphagia to tilt their head back while swallowing can actually increase the risk of aspiration. This position opens the airway and makes it easier for food or liquid to enter the trachea instead of the esophagus, potentially leading to pneumonia or other respiratory complications.

Choice B:

Elevating the client's head of the bed to 45° during meals is a crucial intervention for clients with dysphagia. This semi-Fowler's position helps to utilize gravity to facilitate the passage of food and liquids down the esophagus and reduces the risk of aspiration into the airway. Maintaining this upright posture during and shortly after meals is essential for safe swallowing.

Choice C:

Alternating liquids and solids during meals can help manage dysphagia by reducing the bolus size and consistency that the client needs to manage at any given time. This strategy can prevent overwhelming the client's swallowing ability and decrease the risk of aspiration by allowing for better control over different food textures.

Choice D:

Encouraging the client to lie flat after meals is contraindicated for clients with dysphagia. Lying flat increases the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of food or liquids into the airway. Clients with swallowing difficulties should remain in an upright or semi-upright position for at least 30-60 minutes after eating to allow for proper digestion and reduce the risk of aspiration.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 9:

The physician orders Salagen 10 mg PO twice a day for dry eyes.

The medication is supplied in 5-mg tablets.

How many tablets will the nurse administer?

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: "2" tablets

Explanation

Step 1: The physician ordered 10 mg per dose.

Step 2: The available tablet strength is 5 mg per tablet.

Step 3: To find the number of tablets per dose, divide the ordered dose by the tablet strength: 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.

Step 4: The nurse will administer 2 tablets per dose.

Final answer: 2 tablets.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 10:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with an older adult client who is on bed rest about foods high in dietary fiber.
Which of the following food items should the nurse indicate is the best source of fiber?

A. Canned pineapple. B. Mashed potatoes. C. Celery. D. Pears with skin.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Canned pineapple, while containing some fiber, typically has a lower fiber content compared to fresh fruits, especially when the skin is removed. The canning process can also reduce the fiber content. A diet rich in fiber promotes bowel regularity, helps control blood sugar levels, and can contribute to lower cholesterol.

Choice B:

Mashed potatoes, particularly if made with peeled potatoes, are relatively low in dietary fiber. Most of the fiber in a potato is found in its skin. Fiber is essential for maintaining healthy bowel function, preventing constipation, and contributing to feelings of fullness, which can aid in weight management.

Choice C:

Celery is a source of dietary fiber, primarily in its strings. Fiber adds bulk to the stool, facilitating its passage through the digestive system and preventing constipation. Adequate fiber intake is also associated with a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease and certain types of cancer.

Choice D:

Pears with skin are an excellent source of dietary fiber. The skin of fruits and vegetables is often rich in fiber. Dietary fiber plays a vital role in digestive health by promoting regularity, preventing constipation, and supporting the growth of beneficial gut bacteria. It also helps regulate blood sugar and cholesterol levels.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 55 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Naxlex’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Exam Review

ATI NUR 112 Fundamentals exam III Share this Share This Link Share on social media Facebook Messager WhatsApp Share URL Copy Close

Total Questions : 55

Sign Up or Login to view all the 55 Questions on this Exam

ATI NUR 112 Fundamentals exam III

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy