Review ATI N103N103 Fundamentals Final Exam

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ATI N103N103 Fundamentals Final Exam

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Total Questions : 79

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Question 1:

A client asks the nurse about a prescription for the antihistamine, diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The nurse should teach the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients who have a history of which condition?

A. Asthma B. Hypertension C. Glaucoma D. Depression

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Asthma Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can cause drying of the airways and thickening of bronchial secretions, which might exacerbate asthma symptoms. However, it is not strictly contraindicated in asthma patients. Instead, caution is advised, and it should be used under medical supervision if necessary.

Choice B:

Hypertension While diphenhydramine can cause mild increases in blood pressure due to its anticholinergic effects, it is not contraindicated in patients with hypertension. Patients with hypertension should use it cautiously and under medical advice, but it is not an absolute contraindication.

Choice C:

Glaucoma Diphenhydramine is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma, particularly closed-angle glaucoma. This is because diphenhydramine has anticholinergic properties that can increase intraocular pressure, potentially worsening the condition. Patients with glaucoma should avoid using diphenhydramine to prevent complications related to increased eye pressure.

Choice D:

Depression Diphenhydramine is not contraindicated in patients with depression. However, it can cause drowsiness and sedation, which might affect mood and energy levels. Patients with depression should use it cautiously and under medical supervision, but it is not an absolute contraindication.

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Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain in place after surgery for an abdominal wound. The nurse should understand that the JP drain was placed for which purpose?

A. To provide a means for medication administration B. To eliminate the need for wound dressings C. To limit the amount of bleeding from the surgical site D. To prevent fluid from accumulating in the wound

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

To provide a means for medication administration A Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain is not used for medication administration. Its primary function is to remove fluids that accumulate in a surgical site, which helps to prevent infection and promote healing. Medication administration is typically done through other means such as intravenous (IV) lines or oral medications.

Choice B:

To eliminate the need for wound dressings The JP drain does not eliminate the need for wound dressings. Dressings are still required to protect the wound site, absorb any additional drainage, and prevent infection. The JP drain works in conjunction with dressings to manage wound care effectively.

Choice C:

To limit the amount of bleeding from the surgical site While the JP drain can help manage bleeding by removing accumulated blood, its primary purpose is not to limit bleeding. Instead, it is designed to prevent the buildup of fluids, including blood, which can lead to complications such as hematomas or infections.

Choice D:

To prevent fluid from accumulating in the wound The primary purpose of a Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain is to prevent fluid from accumulating in the wound. This includes blood, lymphatic fluid, and other bodily fluids that can collect at the surgical site. By removing these fluids, the JP drain helps to reduce the risk of infection, promote healing, and decrease the likelihood of complications.

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Question 3:

A nurse is assessing a client’s wound and notes there is slough present. What would be an appropriate intervention for this wound?

A. Cover B. Clean C. Debride D. Leave alone

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Cover Covering a wound with slough is not an appropriate intervention. Slough is a type of necrotic tissue that can impede the healing process by providing a medium for bacterial growth and preventing the formation of healthy granulation tissue. Simply covering the wound without addressing the slough can lead to infection and delayed healing.

Choice B:

Clean Cleaning the wound is a necessary step in wound care, but it is not sufficient on its own to address the presence of slough. While cleaning can help reduce the bacterial load and remove some debris, it does not effectively remove the slough itself. Slough often requires more targeted interventions such as debridement to be effectively managed.

Choice C:

Debride Debridement is the most appropriate intervention for a wound with slough. Debridement involves the removal of necrotic tissue, including slough, to promote a clean wound bed and facilitate the healing process. There are several methods of debridement, including autolytic, enzymatic, mechanical, and surgical, each with its own indications and benefits. Removing the slough allows for better assessment of the wound and promotes the formation of healthy granulation tissue.

Choice D:

Leave Alone Leaving a wound with slough alone is not advisable. Slough can harbor bacteria and impede the healing process, leading to chronic wounds and potential infection. Without intervention, the wound is unlikely to progress through the normal stages of healing.

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Question 4:

A nurse is giving preoperative instructions to a patient scheduled for surgery. The patient tells the nurse, “I will prepare my advance directives before I come to the hospital.” Which statement shows the client understands advance directives?

A. I will get my regular doctor to approve my plan before I hand it in to the hospital. B. I know they won’t go ahead with the surgery unless I prepare these forms. C. I plan to write that I do not want them to keep me on a breathing machine. D. I would rather have my brother make decisions for me, but I know he has to be my wife.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: “I will get my regular doctor to approve my plan before I hand it in to the hospital.” This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of advance directives. While it is important to discuss your advance directives with your healthcare provider, the primary purpose of these documents is to communicate your wishes regarding medical treatment, not to seek approval from your doctor. The advance directive is a personal document that reflects your values and preferences for medical care.

Choice B:

: “I know they won’t go ahead with the surgery unless I prepare these forms.” This statement also reflects a misunderstanding. While having advance directives in place is highly recommended, it is not typically a prerequisite for undergoing surgery. Advance directives are important for ensuring that your medical wishes are respected, but they are not mandatory for surgical procedures. The focus should be on making sure your wishes are known and documented, rather than on the necessity of the forms for surgery.

Choice C:

: “I plan to write that I do not want them to keep me on a breathing machine.” This statement correctly reflects the purpose of an advance directive. It shows that the patient understands that they can specify their preferences for medical treatment, such as whether or not they want to be kept on a breathing machine. This type of instruction is a common component of a living will, which is part of an advance directive. It ensures that healthcare providers are aware of the patient’s wishes regarding life-sustaining treatments.

Choice D:

: “I would rather have my brother make decisions for me, but I know he has to be my wife.” This statement is incorrect and confusing. It seems to mix up the roles of different individuals. In an advance directive, you can designate a healthcare proxy or durable power of attorney for healthcare, who can be any trusted person, not necessarily a spouse. The statement also contains a factual error, as it implies that the brother must be the patient’s wife, which is not possible. The correct understanding is that you can choose any trusted individual to make healthcare decisions on your behalf.

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Question 5:

A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which action should the nurse take for hand hygiene to be effective?

A. Rub soap on hands for 20 seconds. B. Allow hands and arms to dry. C. Hold the hands higher than the elbows. D. Adjust the water temperature to feel hot.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: “Rub soap on hands for 20 seconds.” This is the correct action for effective hand hygiene. According to the CDC, scrubbing your hands for at least 20 seconds is essential to remove germs effectively. This duration ensures that all surfaces of the hands, including the backs, between the fingers, and under the nails, are thoroughly cleaned. The CDC recommends singing the “Happy Birthday” song twice as a timer to ensure you scrub for the full 20 seconds.

Choice B:

: “Allow hands and arms to dry.” While drying hands is an important step in hand hygiene, it is not the primary action that makes hand hygiene effective. The focus should be on the thorough scrubbing and cleaning of the hands. After washing, hands should be dried using a clean towel or air dryer to prevent the transfer of germs from wet hands.

Choice C:

: “Hold the hands higher than the elbows.” This technique is often used in surgical hand antisepsis to prevent water from running from the hands down to the elbows, potentially contaminating the hands again. However, for routine hand hygiene, this is not necessary. The primary focus should be on the thorough washing and scrubbing of the hands.

Choice D:

: “Adjust the water temperature to feel hot.” The temperature of the water is less important than the act of scrubbing itself. The CDC states that hands can be washed with either warm or cold water. The key is to use soap and scrub all surfaces of the hands for at least 20 seconds. Hot water can actually be harsh on the skin and is not required for effective hand hygiene.

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Question 6:

A nurse is caring for a patient who is pregnant. Check the name tag (select all that apply):

A. Pee privacy B. Otoscope C. Tannic acid D. Pupil dilation

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Pee privacy Ensuring privacy for a patient, especially one who is pregnant, is crucial. Privacy helps maintain the patient’s dignity and comfort during medical procedures. It also fosters a trusting relationship between the patient and the healthcare provider. In this context, “Pee privacy” likely refers to ensuring the patient has privacy when providing a urine sample, which is a common procedure during pregnancy check-ups to monitor for conditions like gestational diabetes or preeclampsia.

Choice B:

Otoscope An otoscope is a medical device used to look into the ears. While it is an essential tool in many medical examinations, it is not specifically related to the care of a pregnant patient unless there is a specific concern about ear health. Therefore, this choice is less relevant in the context of routine pregnancy care.

Choice C:

Tannic acid Tannic acid is a substance that can be used for various medical purposes, including treating burns and stopping bleeding. However, it is not typically associated with routine pregnancy care. Its inclusion in this list seems out of place unless there is a specific, unusual medical condition being addressed.

Choice D:

Pupil dilation Pupil dilation is a procedure often performed during eye examinations to allow a better view of the retina and other structures inside the eye. While important in ophthalmology, it is not a standard procedure in the care of a pregnant patient unless there is a specific concern about the patient’s vision or eye health.

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Question 7:

Which clinical manifestation is most reflective of an early response to hypoxia?

A. Restlessness B. Cyanosis C. Apnea D. Bradycardia

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: Restlessness is often one of the earliest signs of hypoxia. When the body experiences low oxygen levels, the brain is one of the first organs to be affected. This can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and restlessness as the brain struggles to function properly without adequate oxygen. These symptoms occur because the body is trying to compensate for the lack of oxygen by increasing respiratory and heart rates, which can make a person feel uneasy or restless.

Choice B:

: Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. While cyanosis is a significant indicator of hypoxia, it is typically a later sign. By the time cyanosis is visible, hypoxia has usually been present for some time, and oxygen levels have been critically low. Therefore, it is not the earliest clinical manifestation of hypoxia.

Choice C:

: Apnea is the absence of breathing. This is a severe and late sign of hypoxia. When a person stops breathing, it indicates that the body has been deprived of oxygen for an extended period, leading to critical conditions. Apnea is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention, but it is not an early sign of hypoxia.

Choice D:

: Bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate. Like apnea, bradycardia is a late sign of hypoxia. Initially, the body responds to low oxygen levels by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to pump more oxygenated blood to tissues. Bradycardia occurs when the body can no longer compensate, and the heart rate slows down, indicating severe hypoxia and impending failure of the cardiovascular system.

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Question 8:

A nurse is teaching a client who is taking medication before bedtime. The nurse should include the following instructions:

A. Do not take the medication before bedtime. B. Take the medication with a full glass of water. C. This medication must be taken on an empty stomach. D. Expect abdominal pain with this medication.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: “Do not take the medication before bedtime” is incorrect because the timing of medication administration depends on the specific medication and its intended effects. Some medications are specifically prescribed to be taken at bedtime to help with sleep or to reduce side effects that might occur during the day.

Choice B:

: “Take the medication with a full glass of water” is correct because many medications require adequate hydration to ensure proper absorption and to prevent irritation of the esophagus and stomach. Taking medication with a full glass of water helps to ensure that the medication reaches the stomach quickly and reduces the risk of esophageal irritation or damage.

Choice C:

: “This medication must be taken on an empty stomach” is incorrect unless the specific medication requires it. Some medications are better absorbed on an empty stomach, but this is not a universal rule and depends on the medication’s formulation and intended use.

Choice D:

: “Expect abdominal pain with this medication” is incorrect because not all medications cause abdominal pain. If a medication is known to cause abdominal pain, the nurse should provide additional instructions on how to manage this side effect or discuss alternative medications with the healthcare provider.

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Question 9:

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs. The client appears flushed and reports low-back pain. After stopping the transfusion, which intervention is important to complete FIRST?

A. Call the provider. B. Notify the blood bank. C. Collect a urine specimen. D. Keep the line open with 0.9% NS through new tubing.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: “Call the provider” is important but not the first priority. The immediate concern is to maintain the client’s intravenous access to ensure they can receive any necessary medications or fluids promptly. Once the line is secured, the provider should be notified to receive further instructions and manage the client’s condition.

Choice B:

: “Notify the blood bank” is also crucial but comes after ensuring the client’s immediate safety. The blood bank needs to be informed to investigate the cause of the reaction and prevent further issues, but this step follows the initial emergency interventions.

Choice C:

: “Collect a urine specimen” is necessary to check for hemolysis, which can occur during a transfusion reaction. However, this is not the first step. The priority is to stabilize the client by maintaining IV access with normal saline.

Choice D:

: “Keep the line open with 0.9% NS through new tubing” is the correct first intervention. This action ensures that the client remains hydrated and that the IV line is available for any emergency medications or treatments. Using new tubing prevents any contamination from the transfusion set.

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Question 10:

A nurse is preparing an educational program about client confidentiality. The nurse should explain that nurses may share a client’s protected health information with which individuals?

A. The client’s immediate family members B. The facility’s administrators C. Health care team members caring for the client D. Clergy affiliated with the facility

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

: The client’s immediate family members may not always have the right to access the client’s protected health information (PHI) unless the client has given explicit consent. Confidentiality laws, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, are designed to protect the privacy of patients’ health information. These laws generally require that PHI be shared only with individuals who are directly involved in the patient’s care or who have been authorized by the patient. Therefore, while family members may be involved in the patient’s care, they do not automatically have the right to access PHI without the patient’s consent.

Choice B:

ould violate confidentiality laws and the patient’s right to privacy.

Choice C:

: Health care team members caring for the client are directly involved in the patient’s care and, therefore, have a legitimate need to access the client’s PHI. This includes doctors, nurses, therapists, and other healthcare professionals who are providing treatment, coordinating care, or ensuring the patient’s well-being. Sharing PHI with these individuals is essential for delivering safe and effective care, and it is permitted under confidentiality laws such as HIPAA.

Choice D:

: Clergy affiliated with the facility may provide spiritual support to patients, but they do not typically have a legitimate need to access the client’s PHI unless the patient has given explicit consent. While spiritual care is an important aspect of holistic healthcare, it does not require access to detailed medical information. Therefore, sharing PHI with clergy without the patient’s consent would generally be considered a violation of confidentiality laws.

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ATI N103N103 Fundamentals Final Exam

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