PN Maternity
ATI PN Maternity
Total Questions : 62
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in labor about why epidural anesthesia is not initiated until a good labor pattern has been established. Which of the following explanations should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing shaking chills during the immediate postpartum period. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Cover the client with warm blankets.
Choice A rationale:
Shaking chills are not always associated with fever, especially during the immediate postpartum period. While determining the client's temperature can rule out infection, this action does not provide immediate relief or comfort. The chills are often physiological due to hormonal and vascular changes.
Choice B rationale:
Seizure precautions are unnecessary unless additional symptoms, such as loss of consciousness or convulsions, are observed. Shaking chills are typically not indicative of a neurological event but rather a normal postpartum response.
Choice C rationale:
Notifying the charge nurse is unnecessary unless the shaking is accompanied by other abnormal findings, such as fever or prolonged chills. The immediate priority is to ensure client comfort.
Choice D rationale:
Providing warm blankets addresses the primary issue of discomfort caused by postpartum chills. This is a standard intervention to stabilize the client's body temperature and promote comfort. The action is immediate, non-invasive, and effective.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and in labor. The client asks the nurse, "Will my baby be okay?”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: “You must be feeling very scared.” This response is an example of therapeutic communication, where the nurse acknowledges the client’s feelings and provides emotional support without making assumptions or giving false reassurances.
Choice A rationale: While it’s true that the presence of a neonatal unit equipped to handle emergencies is reassuring, this response does not address the client’s immediate emotional needs or fears. It’s important for the nurse to recognize and validate the client’s feelings rather than focusing solely on the facilities available.
Choice B rationale: This choice demonstrates empathy and understanding. It allows the client to express their feelings and concerns, which is a crucial aspect of providing emotional support during labor. By acknowledging the client’s potential fear, the nurse opens the door for further communication and support.
Choice C rationale: This response minimizes the client’s individual feelings by suggesting that everyone has the same worries. It can make the client feel that their concerns are not unique or taken seriously, which is not conducive to establishing trust or providing individualized care.
Choice D rationale: This choice provides false reassurance. At 32 weeks of gestation, while the prognosis for the baby is generally good, there are still risks associated with preterm birth. It’s important not to make definitive statements about outcomes that cannot be guaranteed.
A nurse is assisting with the monitoring of a client who is in the first stage of labor, with an external fetal monitor in place and IV fluids infusing. Which of the following factors will cause variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fetal head compression is unlikely to cause variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. During contractions and labor, the fetal head may experience pressure, but this usually leads to early decelerations, not variable decelerations. Early decelerations are considered benign and are caused by the head's pressure stimulating the vagus nerve, resulting in a temporary decrease in heart rate.
Choice B rationale:
Umbilical cord compression is a known cause of variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. When the umbilical cord is compressed, it can temporarily disrupt blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, leading to decelerations. Variable decelerations often appear as abrupt, sharp drops in the fetal heart rate and are typically characterized by their unpredictable
nature.
Choice C rationale:
Maternal opioid administration is not a direct cause of variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. While opioids can cross the placenta and may affect the fetus, they are more likely to cause other issues, such as respiratory depression in the newborn, rather than variable decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Uteroplacental insufficiency is not the primary factor causing variable decelerations. Uteroplacental insufficiency refers to an inadequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can lead to late decelerations in the fetal heart rate, not variable decelerations.
A nurse is assisting with the monitoring of a client who is in the first stage of labor, with an external fetal monitor in place and IV fluids infusing. Which of the following factors will cause variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fetal head compression is unlikely to cause variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. During contractions and labor, the fetal head may experience pressure, but this usually leads to early decelerations, not variable decelerations. Early decelerations are considered benign and are caused by the head's pressure stimulating the vagus nerve, resulting in a temporary decrease in heart rate.
Choice B rationale:
Umbilical cord compression is a known cause of variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. When the umbilical cord is compressed, it can temporarily disrupt blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, leading to decelerations. Variable decelerations often appear as abrupt, sharp drops in the fetal heart rate and are typically characterized by their unpredictable
nature.
Choice C rationale:
Maternal opioid administration is not a direct cause of variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. While opioids can cross the placenta and may affect the fetus, they are more likely to cause other issues, such as respiratory depression in the newborn, rather than variable decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Uteroplacental insufficiency is not the primary factor causing variable decelerations. Uteroplacental insufficiency refers to an inadequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the placenta, which c
A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and has a prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect because Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Instead, it acts to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is also incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. It is given to Rh-negative women to prevent them from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-positive fetal blood during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women to prevent the formation of Rh antibodies. If an Rh-negative woman is exposed to Rh-positive blood (usually during childbirth), her immune system may recognize the Rh antigen as foreign and start producing Rh antibodies. These antibodies could potentially cross the placenta during a subsequent pregnancy and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus, causing hemolytic disease in the newborn. Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent this sensitization process.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not prevent the formation of Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Its main purpose is to protect Rh-negative women from forming antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive pregnancies.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in the first stage of labor. The nurse observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
Choice A rationale:
Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean birth is important, but it is not the immediate first action. The priority is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to prevent fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale:
Explaining to the client what is happening is important for communication and reassurance, but it is not the immediate first action. Immediate physical intervention is required to prevent harm to the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Covering the cord with a sterile, moist saline dressing is a necessary step to prevent the cord from drying out and to reduce infection risk, but it should be done after repositioning the client to relieve pressure on the cord.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, which is crucial to maintain fetal oxygenation. This is the immediate first action to take in this emergency situation.
A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who is in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation and has a new prescription for betamethasone. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should state, "The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.”. The rationale behind this choice is that betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly administered to women at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its primary goal is to accelerate fetal lung maturation by promoting the production of surfactant, a substance that coats the lungs and prevents their collapse. By enhancing lung development, the medication helps reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other respiratory complications that premature infants might face. It does not directly impact fetal heart rate (Choice A), halt cervical dilation (Choice B), or stop preterm labor contractions (Choice C).
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.”. Betamethasone does not affect the fetal heart rate, as it is primarily used to enhance lung maturity, as mentioned earlier. The incorrect statement may lead to confusion and misunderstanding of the medication's intended purpose.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.”. Betamethasone does not stop or halt cervical dilation. Its main action is on the fetal lungs to promote surfactant production. Cervical dilation is a natural process that occurs during labor and is not influenced by this medication.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labor contractions.”. Betamethasone is not used to stop or prevent preterm labor contractions directly. Instead, its focus is on improving fetal lung maturity to enhance the baby's respiratory function once born prematurely.
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is in active labour. The nurse notes variable decelerations of the FHR. The nurse should identify which of the following is a cause of variable decelerations.
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Choice A, fetal head compression, is not the correct answer in this case. Fetal head compression can cause early decelerations in the FHR, not variable decelerations. Early decelerations are often a result of the fetal head being compressed during contractions and are considered benign and expected during labor.
Choice B rationale:
The correct answer is choice B, which is umbilical cord compression. Variable decelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) can occur during labor due to various rationales, and umbilical cord compression is one of the common causes. When the umbilical cord gets compressed, it can briefly reduce or restrict the blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, leading to temporary decelerations in the FHR.
Choice C rationale:
Choice C, maternal fever, is also not the correct answer for variable decelerations in FHR. Maternal fever can be a sign of infection, and it may lead to other fetal heart rate abnormalities, such as tachycardia (an increased heart rate), but it is not specifically associated with variable decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Choice D, polyhydramnios, is not the cause of variable decelerations in this scenario. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid around the fetus. While it can have implications for pregnancy, it is not directly linked to variable decelerations of the FHR.