A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in labor about why epidural anesthesia is not initiated until a good labor pattern has been established. Which of the following explanations should the nurse include?
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia will delay rupture of fetal membranes.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can prolong labor.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause fetal depression.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause maternal hypertension.".
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Assist the client to breathe into a paper bag.
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the client to maintain a breathing rate no less than twice the normal rate is not appropriate. This could exacerbate hyperventilation, leading to further lightheadedness and tingling.
Choice B rationale:
Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is not necessary in this situation. The symptoms are due to hyperventilation, not a lack of oxygen.
Choice C rationale:
Assisting the client to breathe into a paper bag helps to rebreathe carbon dioxide, which can correct the respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. This will alleviate the symptoms of lightheadedness and tingling.
Choice D rationale:
Having the client tuck her chin to her chest is not a recognized intervention for hyperventilation. It would not address the underlying issue of respiratory alkalosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.