A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in labor about why epidural anesthesia is not initiated until a good labor pattern has been established. Which of the following explanations should the nurse include?
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia will delay rupture of fetal membranes.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can prolong labor.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause fetal depression.".
"Given too soon, epidural anesthesia can cause maternal hypertension.".
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse does not need to report the blood pressure finding. While blood pressure is an essential vital sign to monitor during pregnancy, the scenario does not indicate any abnormalities or concerning values in the client's blood pressure. Therefore, there is no immediate cause for reporting this finding.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should report cerebral manifestations to the provider. The client's complaint of a more severe headache, rated at 5 on a 0 to 10 pain scale, along with feeling dizzy when getting up from the examination table, may indicate potential neurological symptoms. These could be signs of conditions like preeclampsia, which is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, including the brain.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should also report fetal heart rate findings to the provider. The client reports occasional contractions and positive fetal movement, but there is no mention of fetal heart rate in the nurse's notes. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is crucial during prenatal care, as changes in fetal heart rate could indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse does not need to report respiratory rate findings. There is no indication in the nurse's notes of any respiratory issues or complaints from the client, making this finding less relevant to the current situation.
Choice E rationale:
The nurse does not need to report deep tendon reflexes in this context. Deep tendon reflexes are not typically a priority assessment during routine prenatal care unless there are specific concerns or indications of neurological issues.
Choice F rationale:
The nurse does not need to report gastrointestinal assessment findings based on the information provided in the scenario. While the client reports "heartburn,”. there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms or indications of acute gastrointestinal issues requiring immediate reporting.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
The correct answer is Choice B, which is "Newborn hypoglycemia.”. Newborn hypoglycemia is a potential complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. When a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes, her blood glucose levels can be elevated, leading to increased insulin production in the fetus. After birth, the baby's insulin production continues at a high level, which can result in a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. This condition can be serious and requires close monitoring and timely intervention to prevent complications in the newborn.
Choice A rationale :
Placenta previa is not a complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to bleeding during pregnancy and delivery. However, this condition is not directly related to gestational diabetes, and there is no physiological rationale connecting the two.
Choice C rationale
Small for gestational age (SGA) newborn is not a direct complication of maternal gestational diabetes. SGA refers to babies who are smaller in size than expected for their gestational age. While poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy can lead to large babies (macrosomia), it is not typically associated with small babies.
Choice D rationale
Oligohydramnios, which is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, is not a common complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Oligohydramnios can be caused by various factors, but it is not specifically linked to gestational diabetes.
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