A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Whitish vaginal discharge.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: The correct answer is (a) Bleeding. The purpose of administering vitamin K to a newborn following delivery is to prevent bleeding complications. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of blood clotting factors, specifically factors II, VII, IX, and X. Newborns have low levels of vitamin K at birth, and it takes a few days for their bodies to start producing it. This places them at risk of developing vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB), which can lead to serious bleeding problems, including bleeding into the brain (intracranial haemorrhage). By giving the newborn a vitamin K injection, this deficiency is corrected, reducing the risk of bleeding complications.
Choice B rationale
(b) Infection. Administering vitamin K to a newborn is not intended to prevent infections. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and does not have a direct role in preventing or treating infections. Infection prevention measures involve proper hygiene practices and vaccination, but vitamin K is unrelated to this aspect of care.
Choice C rationale
(c) Potassium deficiency. Administering vitamin K to a newborn has no impact on potassium levels. Potassium is a different essential nutrient that plays a vital role in various physiological processes, but it is not related to blood clotting. The administration of vitamin K is specific to preventing bleeding complications, not addressing potassium deficiency.
Choice D rationale
(d) Hyperbilirubinemia. The correct answer is not (d) Hyperbilirubinemia. Vitamin K administration is not aimed at preventing or treating hyperbilirubinemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Hyperbilirubinemia is related to the breakdown of red blood cells and the liver'sability to process bilirubin, whereas vitamin K's primary role is in the clotting cascade.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor. Performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa can potentially trigger uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor. Manipulating the cervix during the examination may stimulate the release of hormones that could initiate labor, putting both the mother and the baby at risk.
Choice B rationale:
Infection. While infection is a valid concern in any medical procedure, it is not the primary rationale for avoiding a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa. The primary concern is the risk of severe bleeding caused by the disruption of the placenta's attachment to the uterine wall.
Choice C rationale:
Profound bleeding. The primary rationale to avoid a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it is at risk of being damaged or detached during a pelvic exam. This can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Rupture of the fetal membranes. While this complication is possible during a pelvic examination, it is not the primary rationale to avoid the procedure in a client with placenta previa. The main concern, as mentioned before, is the risk of severe bleeding that can occur due to placental disruption.
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