A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Whitish vaginal discharge.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should monitor the urinary output of the client as it can be an important indicator of hydration and renal function. However, in this specific scenario, the administration of oxytocin via IV infusion after a vaginal delivery requires a different focus for evaluating medication effectiveness.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should primarily assess the fundal consistency to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Oxytocin is often administered after childbirth to promote uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Checking the fundal consistency helps determine if the uterus is contracting appropriately. A firm fundus indicates effective contractions, which are essential for controlling bleeding and preventing complications.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the pulse rate is a vital aspect of patient care, but it may not be the most relevant parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Pulse rate can give information about the client's cardiovascular status and general well-being, but it does not directly assess the medication's impact on uterine contractions.
Choice D rationale:
Similarly, keeping an eye on blood pressure is crucial for patient safety and detecting potential issues like hypertension. However, it is not the primary parameter for evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin. Blood pressure monitoring is essential for overall health assessment but does not directly relate to the medication's intended effect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
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