A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Whitish vaginal discharge.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should state, "The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.”. The rationale behind this choice is that betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly administered to women at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its primary goal is to accelerate fetal lung maturation by promoting the production of surfactant, a substance that coats the lungs and prevents their collapse. By enhancing lung development, the medication helps reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other respiratory complications that premature infants might face. It does not directly impact fetal heart rate (Choice A), halt cervical dilation (Choice B), or stop preterm labor contractions (Choice C).
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.”. Betamethasone does not affect the fetal heart rate, as it is primarily used to enhance lung maturity, as mentioned earlier. The incorrect statement may lead to confusion and misunderstanding of the medication's intended purpose.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.”. Betamethasone does not stop or halt cervical dilation. Its main action is on the fetal lungs to promote surfactant production. Cervical dilation is a natural process that occurs during labor and is not influenced by this medication.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labor contractions.”. Betamethasone is not used to stop or prevent preterm labor contractions directly. Instead, its focus is on improving fetal lung maturity to enhance the baby's respiratory function once born prematurely.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor. Performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa can potentially trigger uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor. Manipulating the cervix during the examination may stimulate the release of hormones that could initiate labor, putting both the mother and the baby at risk.
Choice B rationale:
Infection. While infection is a valid concern in any medical procedure, it is not the primary rationale for avoiding a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa. The primary concern is the risk of severe bleeding caused by the disruption of the placenta's attachment to the uterine wall.
Choice C rationale:
Profound bleeding. The primary rationale to avoid a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it is at risk of being damaged or detached during a pelvic exam. This can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Rupture of the fetal membranes. While this complication is possible during a pelvic examination, it is not the primary rationale to avoid the procedure in a client with placenta previa. The main concern, as mentioned before, is the risk of severe bleeding that can occur due to placental disruption.
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