A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?
Excessive uterine enlargement.
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels.
Fetal heart rate irregularities.
Whitish vaginal discharge.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
Prepare for cesarean birth. The nurse should consider preparing for a cesarean birth as the client is at 39 weeks of gestation and has heavy vaginal bleeding. Heavy vaginal bleeding during pregnancy could indicate an emergency situation such as placental abruption or placenta previa, both of which can be life-threatening for the mother and the baby. In such cases, an emergency cesarean birth might be necessary to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby. Promptly preparing for the procedure will help expedite the process and prevent any delays in providing necessary medical care.
Choice B rationale
Initiate an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is not indicated in this situation. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in obstetrics, particularly in the management of preeclampsia and eclampsia to prevent seizures. However, the client's heavy vaginal bleeding suggests a different issue and magnesium sulfate would not address the underlying cause. Instead, the focus should be on identifying and managing the cause of the bleeding to ensure the best outcome for the client and the baby.
Choice C rationale
Administer antibiotics. Administering antibiotics is not the priority action in this scenario. Heavy vaginal bleeding in a pregnant client requires immediate attention to assess the cause and determine the appropriate course of action. While antibiotics may be necessary in some situations, they are not the first-line treatment for heavy vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. The nurse should focus on providing prompt and appropriate care to address the client's immediate needs.
Choice D rationale
Request the RN to perform a cervical examination. Performing a cervical examination may provide valuable information about the cause of the heavy vaginal bleeding. It can help determine if the bleeding is related to cervical changes, such as cervical dilation or effacement. The findings from the cervical examination, along with other assessments, will aid in making the most appropriate decisions regarding the client's care. However, it is not the only action that the nurse should take. In this critical situation, the nurse must prioritize immediate interventions to ensure the safety and well-being of the client and the baby.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The correct answer is Choice D. The biophysical profile is a prenatal test used to assess fetal well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy. It is not used to determine the estimated date of birth (Choice A), as that is typically calculated based on the first day of the last menstrual period and confirmed or adjusted by early ultrasounds.
The test also does not require the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) for 8 hours prior to the test (Choice B). This restriction is commonly associated with certain medical procedures, but it is not applicable to the biophysical profile.
Furthermore, there is no need to initiate an IV (intravenous line) before the biophysical profile (Choice C). The test is non-invasive and involves the use of ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring. The biophysical profile assesses several fetal parameters, such as fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and the fetal heart rate. These parameters help evaluate the well-being and health of the baby. The test is often recommended in cases of high-risk pregnancies, decreased fetal movement, or other conditions that may warrant closer monitoring of the baby's condition. By knowing that the biophysical profile predicts fetal well-being in the third trimester, the nurse can provide accurate information to the client, reassuring them about the health of their baby and explaining the importance of the test in ensuring a safe delivery and healthy outcome.
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