A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.".
"What else have you been eating?.".
"This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.".
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice C rationale:
This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or
tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.
Choice A rationale:
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.
Choice B rationale:
"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.
Choice D rationale:
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon may delay rupture of fetal membranes. This statement is not accurate. Epidural anesthesia itself does not have a direct impact on the rupture of fetal membranes. The timing of rupturing membranes is determined based on the progress of labor and other clinical indications. There is no causal relationship between epidural anesthesia and the timing of membrane rupture.
Choice B reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can prolong labor. This statement is correct. Epidural anesthesia, while providing pain relief during labor, can also cause some degree of motor blockage and decrease the woman's ability to push effectively. This can potentially lead to a lengthening of the labor process. It is generally recommended to wait until a good labor pattern has been established to avoid unnecessary prolongation of labor.
Choice C reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause fetal depression. This statement is not entirely accurate. Epidural anesthesia can cross the placenta and reach the fetus, but the effect on the baby is usually minimal. However, fetal monitoring is essential during labor to ensure the baby's well-being, regardless of whether epidural anesthesia is used or not.
Choice D reason:
Initiating epidural anesthesia too soon can cause maternal hypertension. This statement is not supported by evidence. Epidural anesthesia does not typically cause maternal hypertension. It can, however, lead to a decrease in blood pressure in some cases, which is why careful monitoring of maternal blood pressure is necessary during and after the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Vaginal hematoma is not a common complication in the 4th stage of labor. This stage primarily involves the recovery and stabilization of the mother after delivery.
Choice B rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not a typical complication in the 4th stage of labor. While blood glucose levels might be monitored during labor, the risk of hypoglycemia is generally higher in neonates, especially if the mother has diabetes.
Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, typically diagnosed during labor or shortly after delivery. It is not specific to the 4th stage of labor.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine hemorrhage is the most significant concern during the 4th stage of labor, also known as the "postpartum”. or "recovery”. stage. It refers to excessive bleeding from the site where the placenta detached. This bleeding can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
Choice E rationale:
Dehiscence is the separation of surgical incisions, which is not a common complication during the 4th stage of labor.
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