A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.".

"What else have you been eating?.".

"This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.".

"Come to the office, and we will check things out.".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice C rationale:

This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or

tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.

Choice A rationale:

"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.

Choice B rationale:

"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.

Choice D rationale:

"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

The correct answers are choices A. Blood pressure, B. Cerebral manifestations, and E. Deep tendon reflexes.

Choice A rationale:

Blood pressure is a critical parameter to monitor, especially in the third trimester. Elevated blood pressure can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate attention.

Choice B rationale:

Cerebral manifestations, such as headaches or visual disturbances, can also be signs of preeclampsia. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately.

Choice C rationale:

The fetal heart rate of 158/min is within the normal range (110-160 beats per minute) and does not need to be reported.

Choice D rationale:

The respiratory rate is not mentioned in the provided notes, and there is no indication that it is abnormal. Therefore, it does not need to be reported.

Choice E rationale:

Deep tendon reflexes that are hyperactive (3+) can be a sign of preeclampsia. This finding should be reported to the provider.

A. Respiratory rate of 16/min. B. Heart rate of 60/min. C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hr. D. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A: Respiratory rate of 16/min.

Choice A rationale:

A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. In the context of severe preeclampsia, maintaining a normal respiratory rate is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate IV, as one of the signs of magnesium toxicity is respiratory depression. Therefore, a respiratory rate of 16/min indicates that the client is not experiencing respiratory depression and it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion.

Choice B rationale:

A heart rate of 60/min is at the lower end of the normal range, which is 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults. However, bradycardia or a low heart rate can be a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity, especially if accompanied by other symptoms such as hypotension or altered mental status. Without additional context, a heart rate of 60/min alone does not necessarily indicate it is unsafe to continue the infusion, but it would require further assessment.

Choice C rationale:

A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is significantly below the expected minimum of 30 mL/hour for adults. Adequate urine output is an important indicator of kidney function and is essential for the excretion of magnesium. In the case of magnesium sulfate infusion for severe preeclampsia, a low urine output could indicate renal insufficiency and an increased risk of magnesium toxicity. Therefore, a urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is a contraindication for continuing the infusion without further evaluation.

Choice D rationale:

Diminished deep-tendon reflexes can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. Deep-tendon reflexes are assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium overdose during infusion, as magnesium acts as a central nervous system depressant at high levels. If deep-tendon reflexes are diminished, it may suggest that the serum magnesium levels are too high, and the infusion should be paused or discontinued to prevent further toxicity.

In summary, the only finding that clearly indicates it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion is a normal respiratory rate, as provided in choice A. The other options either require further assessment or are indicators of potential magnesium toxicity.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe for the nurse to continue the infusion?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse reinforcing teaching about vitamin K with a client who is postpartum. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who is in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation and has a new prescription for betamethasone. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is in labor about why epidural anesthesia is not initiated until a good labor pattern has been established. Which of the following explanations should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reports constipation. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is 36 weeks of gestation and reported to the clinic for a routine visit. Exhibits Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply)

When contributing to the plan of care for the 4th stage of labor, the nurse should recognize the client is at the greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in labor. Immediately after the delivery of a newborn, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is in active labour. The nurse notes variable decelerations of the FHR. The nurse should identify which of the following is a cause of variable decelerations.