A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.".
"What else have you been eating?.".
"This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.".
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice C rationale:
This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or
tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.
Choice A rationale:
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.
Choice B rationale:
"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.
Choice D rationale:
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
The correct answers are choices A. Blood pressure, B. Cerebral manifestations, and E. Deep tendon reflexes.
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a critical parameter to monitor, especially in the third trimester. Elevated blood pressure can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate attention.
Choice B rationale:
Cerebral manifestations, such as headaches or visual disturbances, can also be signs of preeclampsia. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice C rationale:
The fetal heart rate of 158/min is within the normal range (110-160 beats per minute) and does not need to be reported.
Choice D rationale:
The respiratory rate is not mentioned in the provided notes, and there is no indication that it is abnormal. Therefore, it does not need to be reported.
Choice E rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes that are hyperactive (3+) can be a sign of preeclampsia. This finding should be reported to the provider.
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