A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.".

"What else have you been eating?.".

"This is expected because of the way iron is broken down during digestion.".

"Come to the office, and we will check things out.".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice C rationale:

This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or

tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.

Choice A rationale:

"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.

Choice B rationale:

"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.

Choice D rationale:

"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A: Respiratory rate of 16/min.

Choice A rationale:

A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. In the context of severe preeclampsia, maintaining a normal respiratory rate is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate IV, as one of the signs of magnesium toxicity is respiratory depression. Therefore, a respiratory rate of 16/min indicates that the client is not experiencing respiratory depression and it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion.

Choice B rationale:

A heart rate of 60/min is at the lower end of the normal range, which is 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults. However, bradycardia or a low heart rate can be a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity, especially if accompanied by other symptoms such as hypotension or altered mental status. Without additional context, a heart rate of 60/min alone does not necessarily indicate it is unsafe to continue the infusion, but it would require further assessment.

Choice C rationale:

A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is significantly below the expected minimum of 30 mL/hour for adults. Adequate urine output is an important indicator of kidney function and is essential for the excretion of magnesium. In the case of magnesium sulfate infusion for severe preeclampsia, a low urine output could indicate renal insufficiency and an increased risk of magnesium toxicity. Therefore, a urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is a contraindication for continuing the infusion without further evaluation.

Choice D rationale:

Diminished deep-tendon reflexes can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. Deep-tendon reflexes are assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium overdose during infusion, as magnesium acts as a central nervous system depressant at high levels. If deep-tendon reflexes are diminished, it may suggest that the serum magnesium levels are too high, and the infusion should be paused or discontinued to prevent further toxicity.

In summary, the only finding that clearly indicates it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion is a normal respiratory rate, as provided in choice A. The other options either require further assessment or are indicators of potential magnesium toxicity.

A. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. B. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. C. This medication prevents the formation of Rh antibodies by a woman who is Rh-negative. D. This medication prevents the formation of RH antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This statement is incorrect because Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Instead, it acts to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in the mother.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is also incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. It is given to Rh-negative women to prevent them from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-positive fetal blood during pregnancy.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women to prevent the formation of Rh antibodies. If an Rh-negative woman is exposed to Rh-positive blood (usually during childbirth), her immune system may recognize the Rh antigen as foreign and start producing Rh antibodies. These antibodies could potentially cross the placenta during a subsequent pregnancy and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus, causing hemolytic disease in the newborn. Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent this sensitization process.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not prevent the formation of Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Its main purpose is to protect Rh-negative women from forming antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive pregnancies.

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A nurse is speaking on the phone to a client who is pregnant and taking iron supplements for iron-deficiency anaemia. The client reports that her stools are black but she has no abdominal pain or cramping. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe for the nurse to continue the infusion?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and has a prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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