A nurse is assisting a nurse midwife in examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she thinks she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirms that the client is in labor?
Contractions every 3 to 4 min.
Pain just above the navel.
Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault.
Cervical dilation.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale :
Contractions every 3 to 4 minutes. Rationale: Contractions are a significant sign of labor. When the uterus contracts regularly and with increasing intensity, it indicates that the woman is in labor. However, contractions alone may not be enough to confirm active labor, as Braxton Hicks contractions can occur earlier in pregnancy, which are often irregular and less intense.
Choice B rationale
Pain just above the navel. Rationale: Pain above the navel is not a specific indicator of labor. In late pregnancy, the baby's head may engage in the pelvis, causing pressure and discomfort in the upper abdomen. However, this symptom alone does not confirm active labor and can be attributed to various other factors as well.
Choice C rationale
Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault. Rationale: The presence of amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault, also known as rupture of membranes or "water breaking,”. is a significant sign that labor is likely to be in progress or imminent. When the amniotic sac ruptures, it releases the fluid that surrounds the baby in the uterus. This is a clear indication of active labor.
Choice D rationale
Cervical dilation. Rationale: Cervical dilation is one of the most reliable signs of active labor. As the uterus contracts, the cervix starts to dilate and efface (thin out) to allow the baby's passage through the birth canal. Measuring cervical dilation during a pelvic examination provides valuable information about the progress of labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: “You must be feeling very scared.” This response is an example of therapeutic communication, where the nurse acknowledges the client’s feelings and provides emotional support without making assumptions or giving false reassurances.
Choice A rationale: While it’s true that the presence of a neonatal unit equipped to handle emergencies is reassuring, this response does not address the client’s immediate emotional needs or fears. It’s important for the nurse to recognize and validate the client’s feelings rather than focusing solely on the facilities available.
Choice B rationale: This choice demonstrates empathy and understanding. It allows the client to express their feelings and concerns, which is a crucial aspect of providing emotional support during labor. By acknowledging the client’s potential fear, the nurse opens the door for further communication and support.
Choice C rationale: This response minimizes the client’s individual feelings by suggesting that everyone has the same worries. It can make the client feel that their concerns are not unique or taken seriously, which is not conducive to establishing trust or providing individualized care.
Choice D rationale: This choice provides false reassurance. At 32 weeks of gestation, while the prognosis for the baby is generally good, there are still risks associated with preterm birth. It’s important not to make definitive statements about outcomes that cannot be guaranteed.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.