A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant in a provider's office. Vital Signs. Medical History. 0830:. Medical History: Gravida 3 Para 2. 32 weeks of gestation. Allergies: Penicillin. Height 54, 163 cm. Weight 80.7 kg (178 lb). BMI 30.6. 6 lb weight gain over the last 2 weeks. The client reports, "I have had a headache for 5 days, blurred vision, and dizziness. Tylenol does not relieve it.". The client reports swelling of their feet and fingers. 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities noted bilaterally. Swelling of the fingers and hands noted. Deep tendon reflexes 3+, absent clonus. Fetal heart tones (FHT) 148. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Visual disturbances.
Blood pressure.
Respirations.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Weight.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Visual disturbances should be reported to the provider because the client is experiencing headaches, blurred vision, and dizziness, which can be signs of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can develop during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Visual disturbances may indicate neurological involvement and can pose a risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
Blood pressure should be reported to the provider due to the client's symptoms and medical history. The client's weight gain, swelling of feet and fingers, and 2+ pitting edema suggest fluid retention, which can be associated with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and the nurse must monitor it closely to assess the severity of the condition and the potential risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Respirations do not appear to be a significant concern based on the information provided. While respiratory status is important to monitor during pregnancy, there are no indications in the scenario to suggest respiratory distress or abnormalities that require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes are mentioned in the client's medical history but do not show any immediate signs of concern. Absent clonus and 3+ deep tendon reflexes are within the normal range and not typically alarming during pregnancy. However, the nurse should continue to monitor these reflexes during subsequent visits.
Choice E rationale:
Weight gain is mentioned in the medical history but is not currently a critical finding to report. A 6 lb weight gain over 2 weeks may be considered appropriate for a pregnant client at 32 weeks of gestation, but it should be assessed in conjunction with other symptoms for a comprehensive evaluation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
Scrambled eggs. Taking ferrous sulfate with scrambled eggs is not the optimal choice because eggs contain phytates, which can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. Therefore, it may hinder the effectiveness of the iron supplement, and the client may not receive the full benefit of the medication.
Choice B rationale
A high-fibre meal. While fiber is generally beneficial for digestion and overall health, it is not the best choice to take with ferrous sulfate. Fiber can also interfere with iron absorption in the same way as phytates, potentially reducing the medication's effectiveness.
Choice C rationale
Orange juice. The nurse should instruct the client to take the ferrous sulfate with orange juice. Orange juice is an excellent choice because it is rich in vitamin C. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of non-heme iron (the type of iron found in plant-based sources like ferrous sulfate). By taking the medication with orange juice, the client can maximize the absorption of iron and improve the treatment of iron-deficiency anaemia.
Choice D rationale
Milk. Consuming ferrous sulfate with milk is not advisable. Calcium, present in milk, can inhibit the absorption of iron. Therefore, taking the medication with milk might reduce the efficacy of the iron supplement and not provide the desired therapeutic effect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
0.25 mL - The nurse should not administer 0.25 mL because the available concentration of vitamin K injection is 1 mg/0.5 mL. To achieve the prescribed dose of 1 mg, administering only 0.25 mL would be insufficient.
Choice B rationale:
0.5 mL - This is the correct choice. The nurse should administer 0.5 mL of the vitamin K injection to deliver 1 mg of vitamin K, as the concentration of the injection is 1 mg/0.5 mL. By giving the full 0.5 mL, the newborn will receive the appropriate 1 mg dose.
Choice C rationale:
0.75 mL - Administering 0.75 mL would be excessive for the prescribed 1 mg dose of vitamin K. It is unnecessary to give a higher volume than required, as it could lead to potential adverse effects or wastage.
Choice D rationale:
1 mL - Similarly, administering the entire 1 mL of the vitamin K injection would result in doubling the prescribed dose, leading to potential overdose and adverse reactions. The nurse should avoid administering more than the necessary 0.5 mL.
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