A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant in a provider's office. Vital Signs. Medical History. 0830:. Medical History: Gravida 3 Para 2. 32 weeks of gestation. Allergies: Penicillin. Height 54, 163 cm. Weight 80.7 kg (178 lb). BMI 30.6. 6 lb weight gain over the last 2 weeks. The client reports, "I have had a headache for 5 days, blurred vision, and dizziness. Tylenol does not relieve it.". The client reports swelling of their feet and fingers. 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities noted bilaterally. Swelling of the fingers and hands noted. Deep tendon reflexes 3+, absent clonus. Fetal heart tones (FHT) 148. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Visual disturbances.
Blood pressure.
Respirations.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Weight.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Visual disturbances should be reported to the provider because the client is experiencing headaches, blurred vision, and dizziness, which can be signs of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can develop during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Visual disturbances may indicate neurological involvement and can pose a risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
Blood pressure should be reported to the provider due to the client's symptoms and medical history. The client's weight gain, swelling of feet and fingers, and 2+ pitting edema suggest fluid retention, which can be associated with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and the nurse must monitor it closely to assess the severity of the condition and the potential risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Respirations do not appear to be a significant concern based on the information provided. While respiratory status is important to monitor during pregnancy, there are no indications in the scenario to suggest respiratory distress or abnormalities that require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes are mentioned in the client's medical history but do not show any immediate signs of concern. Absent clonus and 3+ deep tendon reflexes are within the normal range and not typically alarming during pregnancy. However, the nurse should continue to monitor these reflexes during subsequent visits.
Choice E rationale:
Weight gain is mentioned in the medical history but is not currently a critical finding to report. A 6 lb weight gain over 2 weeks may be considered appropriate for a pregnant client at 32 weeks of gestation, but it should be assessed in conjunction with other symptoms for a comprehensive evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor. Performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa can potentially trigger uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor. Manipulating the cervix during the examination may stimulate the release of hormones that could initiate labor, putting both the mother and the baby at risk.
Choice B rationale:
Infection. While infection is a valid concern in any medical procedure, it is not the primary rationale for avoiding a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa. The primary concern is the risk of severe bleeding caused by the disruption of the placenta's attachment to the uterine wall.
Choice C rationale:
Profound bleeding. The primary rationale to avoid a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it is at risk of being damaged or detached during a pelvic exam. This can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Rupture of the fetal membranes. While this complication is possible during a pelvic examination, it is not the primary rationale to avoid the procedure in a client with placenta previa. The main concern, as mentioned before, is the risk of severe bleeding that can occur due to placental disruption.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Vastus lateralis.
Choice A rationale:
The deltoid muscle is not typically used for newborn injections because it is too small and underdeveloped, making it an inappropriate site for intramuscular injections in this age group.
Choice B rationale:
The dorsogluteal muscle is also not recommended for newborns due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and the muscle’s underdevelopment.
Choice C rationale:
The ventrogluteal muscle, while a good site for older children and adults, is not commonly used for newborns because it is not as easily accessible and developed as the vastus lateralis.
Choice D rationale:
The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the anterolateral aspect of the thigh, is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in newborns. It is well-developed and provides a large muscle mass, making it the safest and most effective site for administering vitamin K.
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