A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant in a provider's office. Vital Signs. Medical History. 0830:. Medical History: Gravida 3 Para 2. 32 weeks of gestation. Allergies: Penicillin. Height 54, 163 cm. Weight 80.7 kg (178 lb). BMI 30.6. 6 lb weight gain over the last 2 weeks. The client reports, "I have had a headache for 5 days, blurred vision, and dizziness. Tylenol does not relieve it.". The client reports swelling of their feet and fingers. 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities noted bilaterally. Swelling of the fingers and hands noted. Deep tendon reflexes 3+, absent clonus. Fetal heart tones (FHT) 148. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Visual disturbances.
Blood pressure.
Respirations.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Weight.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Visual disturbances should be reported to the provider because the client is experiencing headaches, blurred vision, and dizziness, which can be signs of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can develop during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Visual disturbances may indicate neurological involvement and can pose a risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
Blood pressure should be reported to the provider due to the client's symptoms and medical history. The client's weight gain, swelling of feet and fingers, and 2+ pitting edema suggest fluid retention, which can be associated with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and the nurse must monitor it closely to assess the severity of the condition and the potential risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Respirations do not appear to be a significant concern based on the information provided. While respiratory status is important to monitor during pregnancy, there are no indications in the scenario to suggest respiratory distress or abnormalities that require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes are mentioned in the client's medical history but do not show any immediate signs of concern. Absent clonus and 3+ deep tendon reflexes are within the normal range and not typically alarming during pregnancy. However, the nurse should continue to monitor these reflexes during subsequent visits.
Choice E rationale:
Weight gain is mentioned in the medical history but is not currently a critical finding to report. A 6 lb weight gain over 2 weeks may be considered appropriate for a pregnant client at 32 weeks of gestation, but it should be assessed in conjunction with other symptoms for a comprehensive evaluation.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
Prepare for cesarean birth. The nurse should consider preparing for a cesarean birth as the client is at 39 weeks of gestation and has heavy vaginal bleeding. Heavy vaginal bleeding during pregnancy could indicate an emergency situation such as placental abruption or placenta previa, both of which can be life-threatening for the mother and the baby. In such cases, an emergency cesarean birth might be necessary to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby. Promptly preparing for the procedure will help expedite the process and prevent any delays in providing necessary medical care.
Choice B rationale
Initiate an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is not indicated in this situation. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in obstetrics, particularly in the management of preeclampsia and eclampsia to prevent seizures. However, the client's heavy vaginal bleeding suggests a different issue and magnesium sulfate would not address the underlying cause. Instead, the focus should be on identifying and managing the cause of the bleeding to ensure the best outcome for the client and the baby.
Choice C rationale
Administer antibiotics. Administering antibiotics is not the priority action in this scenario. Heavy vaginal bleeding in a pregnant client requires immediate attention to assess the cause and determine the appropriate course of action. While antibiotics may be necessary in some situations, they are not the first-line treatment for heavy vaginal bleeding during pregnancy. The nurse should focus on providing prompt and appropriate care to address the client's immediate needs.
Choice D rationale
Request the RN to perform a cervical examination. Performing a cervical examination may provide valuable information about the cause of the heavy vaginal bleeding. It can help determine if the bleeding is related to cervical changes, such as cervical dilation or effacement. The findings from the cervical examination, along with other assessments, will aid in making the most appropriate decisions regarding the client's care. However, it is not the only action that the nurse should take. In this critical situation, the nurse must prioritize immediate interventions to ensure the safety and well-being of the client and the baby.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
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