A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and in labor. The client asks the nurse, "Will my baby be okay?”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"We have a neonatal unit here equipped to handle emergencies.".
"You must be feeling very scared.".
"Everyone worries about their baby while they are in labor.".
"You are far enough along that your baby will be just fine.".
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B: “You must be feeling very scared.” This response is an example of therapeutic communication, where the nurse acknowledges the client’s feelings and provides emotional support without making assumptions or giving false reassurances.
Choice A rationale: While it’s true that the presence of a neonatal unit equipped to handle emergencies is reassuring, this response does not address the client’s immediate emotional needs or fears. It’s important for the nurse to recognize and validate the client’s feelings rather than focusing solely on the facilities available.
Choice B rationale: This choice demonstrates empathy and understanding. It allows the client to express their feelings and concerns, which is a crucial aspect of providing emotional support during labor. By acknowledging the client’s potential fear, the nurse opens the door for further communication and support.
Choice C rationale: This response minimizes the client’s individual feelings by suggesting that everyone has the same worries. It can make the client feel that their concerns are not unique or taken seriously, which is not conducive to establishing trust or providing individualized care.
Choice D rationale: This choice provides false reassurance. At 32 weeks of gestation, while the prognosis for the baby is generally good, there are still risks associated with preterm birth. It’s important not to make definitive statements about outcomes that cannot be guaranteed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Vaginal hematoma is not the most significant risk in the 4th stage of labor. While vaginal hematomas can occur due to trauma during delivery, they are less common and usually manageable compared to other complications.
Choice B rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not a typical complication in the 4th stage of labor. This stage refers to the immediate postpartum period, during which the mother's blood sugar levels may decrease slightly, but it is not the greatest concern at this stage.
Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid. While it can be a concern during labor, the question specifically refers to the 4th stage, which occurs after the delivery of the placenta. Chorioamnionitis is more relevant to earlier stages of labor.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine hemorrhage is the greatest risk during the 4th stage of labor. This stage, also known as the "placental stage,”. is when the uterus contracts to expel the placenta. If the uterus fails to contract adequately, it can lead to significant bleeding, known as postpartum hemorrhage. This is a critical concern that requires immediate attention to prevent complications.
Choice E rationale:
Dehiscence, which refers to the reopening of a surgical wound, is not a common complication during the 4th stage of labor. The 4th stage primarily focuses on uterine contraction and placental delivery, making dehiscence less relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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