A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)
Dysuria.
Dependent edema.
Polyuria.
Hematuria.
Urinary frequency.
Correct Answer : A,D,E
Dysuria - Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination. In a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), this symptom is commonly present. The rationale behind this finding is that the infection irritates the urinary tract, causing discomfort and pain during urination. The client may experience a burning sensation or pressure while passing urine.
Choice D rationale
Hematuria - Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine. In the case of a UTI, inflammation of the urinary tract can lead to tiny blood vessels rupturing, resulting in blood in the urine. This can cause the urine to appear pink, red, or brownish.
Choice E rationale:
Urinary frequency - Urinary frequency is another common symptom of a UTI. The infection can irritate the bladder lining, leading to an increased urge to urinate even when the bladder is not full. The client may feel the need to urinate frequently throughout the day and night.
Choice B rationale
Dependent edema - Dependent edema is not typically associated with a urinary tract infection. Edema is the accumulation of fluid in tissues, often causing swelling in the lower extremities due to gravity (dependent). This symptom is more commonly related to issues such as heart, kidney, or liver problems.
Choice C rationale
Polyuria - Polyuria refers to excessive urination, usually producing abnormally large volumes of urine. While frequent urination is a symptom of a UTI, polyuria, in this context, is not accurate. UTIs tend to cause frequent but smaller volumes of urine due to the irritation and inflammation of the bladder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should recommend the client to increase cellulose and fluid in the diet. Cellulose is a type of fiber found in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. Increasing fiber intake can help alleviate constipation by adding bulk to the stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Additionally, the recommendation to increase fluid intake complements the effect of fiber, as it softens the stool, making it easier to pass through the intestines. This combination of increased cellulose and fluid intake is a safe and natural way to address constipation during pregnancy without the need for medication or invasive interventions.
Choice B rationale:
Regular use of glycerine suppositories is not the best recommendation for pregnant clients experiencing constipation. Suppositories are inserted into the rectum to stimulate bowel movements and should only be used sparingly when other methods have failed. Pregnant individuals may have increased sensitivity, and it's essential to avoid unnecessary procedures or potential discomfort.
Choice C rationale:
Regular use of a laxative is also not the most suitable recommendation for a pregnant client with constipation. While laxatives can provide relief, they may lead to dependency and might have adverse effects on the developing fetus. It is best to explore safer and more natural methods before resorting to laxative use during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Maintenance of good posture is essential during pregnancy for various rationales, but it is not a specific solution for constipation. While maintaining good posture can help alleviate back pain and other discomforts, it does not directly address the issue of constipation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor. Performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa can potentially trigger uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor. Manipulating the cervix during the examination may stimulate the release of hormones that could initiate labor, putting both the mother and the baby at risk.
Choice B rationale:
Infection. While infection is a valid concern in any medical procedure, it is not the primary rationale for avoiding a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa. The primary concern is the risk of severe bleeding caused by the disruption of the placenta's attachment to the uterine wall.
Choice C rationale:
Profound bleeding. The primary rationale to avoid a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it is at risk of being damaged or detached during a pelvic exam. This can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Rupture of the fetal membranes. While this complication is possible during a pelvic examination, it is not the primary rationale to avoid the procedure in a client with placenta previa. The main concern, as mentioned before, is the risk of severe bleeding that can occur due to placental disruption.
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