A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)
Dysuria.
Dependent edema.
Polyuria.
Hematuria.
Urinary frequency.
Correct Answer : A,D,E
Dysuria - Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination. In a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), this symptom is commonly present. The rationale behind this finding is that the infection irritates the urinary tract, causing discomfort and pain during urination. The client may experience a burning sensation or pressure while passing urine.
Choice D rationale
Hematuria - Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine. In the case of a UTI, inflammation of the urinary tract can lead to tiny blood vessels rupturing, resulting in blood in the urine. This can cause the urine to appear pink, red, or brownish.
Choice E rationale:
Urinary frequency - Urinary frequency is another common symptom of a UTI. The infection can irritate the bladder lining, leading to an increased urge to urinate even when the bladder is not full. The client may feel the need to urinate frequently throughout the day and night.
Choice B rationale
Dependent edema - Dependent edema is not typically associated with a urinary tract infection. Edema is the accumulation of fluid in tissues, often causing swelling in the lower extremities due to gravity (dependent). This symptom is more commonly related to issues such as heart, kidney, or liver problems.
Choice C rationale
Polyuria - Polyuria refers to excessive urination, usually producing abnormally large volumes of urine. While frequent urination is a symptom of a UTI, polyuria, in this context, is not accurate. UTIs tend to cause frequent but smaller volumes of urine due to the irritation and inflammation of the bladder.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A fetal heart rate of 100/min for a 10-minute period is considered within the normal range. The normal fetal heart rate can range from 110 to 160 beats per minute, and a rate of 100 is not concerning.
Choice B rationale:
The resting period of a contraction refers to the time between contractions when the uterus is relaxed. A resting period of 35 seconds is also considered normal. In labor, the resting period between contractions allows the placenta to receive oxygen and nutrients, and 35 seconds is a rationaleable duration.
Choice C rationale:
A contraction lasting 85 seconds is abnormal and should be reported to the provider. Normally, contractions last around 60-90 seconds, but an 85-second contraction may indicate uterine hyperactivity or other issues that could potentially affect the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Having four contractions in a 10-minute period is considered normal during labor. In fact, an average pattern includes 3-5 contractions within a 10-minute window, so this finding is not a cause for concern.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.