A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply)
Dysuria.
Dependent edema.
Polyuria.
Hematuria.
Urinary frequency.
Correct Answer : A,D,E
Dysuria - Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination. In a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI), this symptom is commonly present. The rationale behind this finding is that the infection irritates the urinary tract, causing discomfort and pain during urination. The client may experience a burning sensation or pressure while passing urine.
Choice D rationale
Hematuria - Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine. In the case of a UTI, inflammation of the urinary tract can lead to tiny blood vessels rupturing, resulting in blood in the urine. This can cause the urine to appear pink, red, or brownish.
Choice E rationale:
Urinary frequency - Urinary frequency is another common symptom of a UTI. The infection can irritate the bladder lining, leading to an increased urge to urinate even when the bladder is not full. The client may feel the need to urinate frequently throughout the day and night.
Choice B rationale
Dependent edema - Dependent edema is not typically associated with a urinary tract infection. Edema is the accumulation of fluid in tissues, often causing swelling in the lower extremities due to gravity (dependent). This symptom is more commonly related to issues such as heart, kidney, or liver problems.
Choice C rationale
Polyuria - Polyuria refers to excessive urination, usually producing abnormally large volumes of urine. While frequent urination is a symptom of a UTI, polyuria, in this context, is not accurate. UTIs tend to cause frequent but smaller volumes of urine due to the irritation and inflammation of the bladder.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice d. Place the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position.
Choice A rationale:
Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean birth is important, but it is not the immediate first action. The priority is to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord to prevent fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale:
Explaining to the client what is happening is important for communication and reassurance, but it is not the immediate first action. Immediate physical intervention is required to prevent harm to the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Covering the cord with a sterile, moist saline dressing is a necessary step to prevent the cord from drying out and to reduce infection risk, but it should be done after repositioning the client to relieve pressure on the cord.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, which is crucial to maintain fetal oxygenation. This is the immediate first action to take in this emergency situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Visual disturbances should be reported to the provider because the client is experiencing headaches, blurred vision, and dizziness, which can be signs of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can develop during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Visual disturbances may indicate neurological involvement and can pose a risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice B rationale:
Blood pressure should be reported to the provider due to the client's symptoms and medical history. The client's weight gain, swelling of feet and fingers, and 2+ pitting edema suggest fluid retention, which can be associated with preeclampsia. High blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and the nurse must monitor it closely to assess the severity of the condition and the potential risk to both the client and the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Respirations do not appear to be a significant concern based on the information provided. While respiratory status is important to monitor during pregnancy, there are no indications in the scenario to suggest respiratory distress or abnormalities that require immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes are mentioned in the client's medical history but do not show any immediate signs of concern. Absent clonus and 3+ deep tendon reflexes are within the normal range and not typically alarming during pregnancy. However, the nurse should continue to monitor these reflexes during subsequent visits.
Choice E rationale:
Weight gain is mentioned in the medical history but is not currently a critical finding to report. A 6 lb weight gain over 2 weeks may be considered appropriate for a pregnant client at 32 weeks of gestation, but it should be assessed in conjunction with other symptoms for a comprehensive evaluation.
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